312.Which is the smallest premolar

a.Maxillary first premolar
b.Mandibular first premolar
c.Maxillary second premolar
d.Mandibular second premolar

Ans-b.Mandibular first premolar

311.All are tumour supressor genes except

a.Rb
b.NF1
c.WT1
d.RET

Ans-RET

Explanation-RET is a proto oncogene
other protooncogenes are
Ras,N-MYC,cyclin D ,ABL

310.For which of the following dose adjustement is not required in case of liver cirrhosis

a.Lorazepam
b.Theophyline
c.PCM
d.Metronidazole

Ans-a.Lorazepam

Ref Katzung 10th ed pg 985

COMED K POST GRADUATE DENTAL ENTRACE EXAM MOCK TESTS

 COMED K PGET forms are out and application can be sent online from their website. COMED K is the biggest exam for all MDS aspirants looking for seats in private colleges . More than 300 seats available, therefore one of the most important exam after AIPG.

Few commonly Asked Questions:

Q.1 > Are Non Karnataka residents eligible for exam?
A.1 > Yes , Comed  k is open to All india students.

Q.2 > I've passed my BDS from outside karnataka , am i eligible?
A.2 > Yes, again. However students who have passed BDS from karnataka will also be eligible for kcet.

Q.3 > How fair is the exam?
A.3 > Examination system is very transparent , so one should expect very less fixing, unlike many other private college exams.

Q.4 > How tough is the exam?
A.4 > COMED K sets high standards. Question bank is very good , but you cannot say the exam is tough, generally they come out with what is called a 'Good Paper' or A Balanced Paper.

Q.5 > No. of Questions in exam?
A.5 > 180 (6 from most subjects, 12 from others , see prospectus)

Q.6 > How much paper is repeated from previous years?
A.6 > Not as much as in AIPG. But yes few Questions are definately repeated.

Q.7 > What is the average cut off?
A.7 > It depends on the paper , but anyone who score 125 and above normally gets a seat.

Q.8 > Which subjects dominate in exam?
A.8 > All subjects are equally covered. There is a complete distribution of subjects , refer prospectus.Fact based Question are important. There is no negative marking.

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260- 309 : DENTAL MCQ'S: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

 

1.     Glutathione is a tripeptide of

a.       Glutamic acid, glycine and  cysteine 

b.       Glycine, cystine, serine

c.        Glutamic acid, serine                   

d.       Glutamic acid, arginine, lysine

2.     In the practice of occlusal equilibration, which of the following is undertaken?

a.       Anterior splint therapy Maxillary training                      

b.       Maxillary training                                                   

c.        osterior eccentric interferences are removed, resulting In less muscle stress

d.       The production of an overlap of the anterior teeth

3.     Branches of third part of maxillary artery are all

except

    a.  Sphenopalatine                 b. Middle meningeal

    c.  Greater palatine.              d. Posterior superior alveolar

4.     NBT is a test of

    a.  Phagocytic capacity     b. Complement activity

       c.  Cellular immunity        d. Humoral immunity.

5.     Hematosis is dependent upon all except

    a.  Vessel wall                  b. Blood viscosity

    b.  Platelet                        d. Coagulation system

6.     The most common complication following the

        extraction of a tooth is

    a.  Alveolar osteitis            b. Dental caries

    c.  Actinomycosis              d. Alveolar abscess 

7.     Truss arm is

       a.  Reciprocal arm             b. Retentive arm

       c.  Minor connector           d. Major connector

8.     An elderly subject, complains of facial muscle

        weakness, difficulty in chewing and swallowing and

        speech. There is a history of his father also having

        had the same symptoms, he is probably suffering

        from:

      a.   Horner’s syndrome       b. Bulbar palsy

      c.   Pseudobulbar palsy      d. Orofacial dyskinesia

9.     Anachoretic pulpitis is:

a.       Transient pulpitis             

b.       Acute subtotal pulpitis

c.        Bacterial infection of pulp

d.       None of the above

10. Bordetella colonies appear as

       a.  Dew drop                       b. Mercury drop

       c.  Green                            d. None of the above

11. Early synostosis of sutures occurs in

   a.  Craniofacial dysostosi   b. Marble bone disease

 .    c.  Osteitis deformans        d. Cherubism

12. In the treatment of oral lichen planus , one of the drug usually used is:

       a.  Streptomycin                 b. Amphoterecin B

       c.  tertracyline                    d. None of the above

13.  Endospores are formed by

       a.  Clostridia                        b. Corynebacteria

       c.  Cyanobacteria                d. Actinomyces

14. Among the following disease which is not associated with enlargement of jaw bones.

a.     Paget’s disease of the bone

b.     Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis

c.     Ossifying fibroma

d.     Central giant cell granuloma

15. Histopathologically, the first sign in pulp,l which show  that irreversible pulpitis has set in is:

a.     Inflammation in subodontogenic zone

b.     Micorabscesses

c.     Pulpal necrosis

d.     Wheat sheaf appearance

16. Contraindications to bridges are

a.     When space is of such length that additional load will impair tissue health around abutments.

b.     When the space length requires a beam of a such Mension that embrasures will be greatly reduced and underlyin  tissue  overprotected

c.     When previous prosthesis produced an unfavorable reaction in mucous membrane

d.     All of the above

17. The racial isolate in dentiongenesis imperfecta is:

      a.   Type 1      b. Type 11      c.  Type 111       d. Type IV                 

18. Which of the following is a mismatch

a.     a.Haemochromatosis -disorder or iron metabolism

b.     b.Haematemesis -vomiting of blood

c.     Hemoglobinuria- the presence of RBC in urine

d.     d.Haemostas - the arrest of bleeding

19. A 32 years old female has got oral cancer, the site where it  is least likely to be situated is:

       a.   Lips                                   b. Faucial pillars

       c.   Palate                                d. Ventral surface of tongue

20. Requirements (intangibles) of bridge construction include

a.      Forces developed by the oral mechanism and by theresistance of the tooth and supporting tissue to them

b.      Modifications of normal tooth form that reduce forces or increase resistance to them

c.      Establishing normal tissue tone

d.      All of the above

21. Basal cell carcinoma usually presents in

      a.   Upper third face          b. Middle third face

      c.    Around chin                d. Intraorally

22. Porcelain should be the material of choice

a.     When a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons

b.     When the material is to be used without the support of metal

c.     For other than for veneer purposes

d.     Since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue

23. In anorexia nervosa one of the clinical entities

        usually observed is:

      a.  Peripapical radiolucencies          b. Abrasion of ant teeth

      c.  Erosion of teeth                            d. None of the above

 24. Battle sign is associated with

a.     Fracture zygoma   

b.     Fracture anterior cranial fossa

c.     Fracture middle cranial fossa

d.     Fracture naso ethmoid

 25. Anemia occurs in renal failure due to

       a.  Decreased RBC production        b. Blood loss

       c.  Increased RBC destruction         d. All of the above.

 26. Broken – down vital teeth may be used as an abutment for a full crown retainer

a.      Never

b.     When iridioplatium wire in the form of a staple is used for reinforcement

c.     After placing silver alloy filling

d.     After placing oxyphosphate of zinc cement

 27. The choice of method of tooth replacement should be considered in which of the following orders?

a.     Fixed partial denture, complete denture, removable partial denture

b.     Complete denture, fixed and removable partial denture

c.     Removable partial, complete denture, fixed partial denture

d.     Fixed partial denture, removable partial denture, complete denture

  28. Among the following, in which patent GA is a contraindicated

a.     An adult male over 65 yrs of age

b.     Patient with acute respiratory infection

c.     Child under 6 yrs of age

d.     Patient with well compensated heart disease

 29. A disadvantage of the direct method  for constructing fixed partial dentures is

a.     It cannot be readily used for all types of retainers

b.     It requires more appointments than the indirect method

c.     Marginal adaptation of retainers is difficult to obtain

d.     All of the above

 30. The feature which is not seen in Marfan’s syndrome 

       a. Arachnodactyly               b. Dolichostenomelia

       c. Buifid uvula                     d. Cleft palate

 31. When one or more distal extension bases are  involved, which of the following factor must be  considered

a.     Need for indirect retention

b.     Clasp designs which minimize one forces applied to the abutment during function

c.     Need for later rebasing

d.     All of the above

32. Rigidity of the major connector may be made more certain by employing one or more of which of the

      following?

a.     Use a cast rather than a wrought iron connector

b.     Avoid a flat or ribbon – shaped connection

c.     Increase the bulk of a major connector

d.     All of the above

33. Which of the following are serious defects inherent in a radiographic method of determining the balance of the patient’s supporting bone?

a.     Favorable appliance support may be found in patients having less dense bone as well as those having bone  which is dense

b.     There is a lack of agreement of whether dense or less Dense bone assumed extra work loads with least  tendency  to atrophic change

c.     The apparent density of the alveolar bone varies in the same specimen when there is a change in the angulation of  film or in exposure or processing

d.     All of the above

34. An advantage of hydrocolloid materials for partial

      denture is

a.     It will remove from undercut areas without permanently deforming or tearing

b.     It is a one – piece impression

c.     No separating medium is required  

d.     All of the above

35. Denture stability is enhanced

a.     By placing the occlusal areas distant from their support

b.     By placing occlusal areas close to their support

c.     When the patient does not chew vertically

d.     By not centralizing the occlusal areas

36. A pathologic occlusion can be modified to a

      therapeutic occlusion by correcting

a.       Alignment                     

b.       Esthetics

c.        Inter arch relationships 

d.       All of the above

37. Inflammatory reaction of basal mucosa is the result of   

a.       Removing dentures to allow tissue to rest

b.       Absence of hyperemia

c.        Endocrine disturbance    

d.       Good oral hygiene

38. Setting teeth with their long axes parallel to each other

a.     Produces very natural looking teeth

b.     Causes people to be happy with their dentures

c.     Never causes patients to be irritated by the appearance of their dentures.

d.     Produces an artificial appearance to the dentures.

39. The isolation of Streptococcus mutans nears 100%

a.     At birth             

b.     When the deciduous incisors erupt

c.     When the permanent incisors erupt  

d.     Adulthood

40. Which of the following are physical properties of

      the lectithins?

a.     When purified they are waxy white substances

b.     They are soluble in fat solvents with the exception of  acetone

c.     They are hygroscopic and mix well with water to form colloidal solution

d.     They are all of the above

41. Characteristics of lipids include which of the following

a.     Solubility in ether ( organic solvents)

b.     Solubility in chloroform ( organic solvents)

c.     Presence of esterified fatty acids

d.     All of the above

42. A marked increase in tongue coating is usually associated with

a.     Pernicious anemia

b.     Late stage of scarlet fever

c.     Median rhomboid glossitis

d.     Disturbances in oral physiology

43. The developing mandible grows backward (not surrounding  Meckel’s cartilage) to form

       a.  The incus and malleus       b. The otic capsule

       c.   The hyoid cartilage           d. The coronoid process

44. Gastric juice is composed of

a.     50% water and 50% organic substances

b.     70% water and 30% inorganic substances

c.     99.4% water and solids (organic substances and in   organic  constituents)

d.     None of the above

45. Malposition of the mandible due to occlusal  disharmony

a.     May result in muscular imbalance, trismus, and pain

b.     Caused drifting of teeth

c.     Causes sleeping habits

d.     Results in neoplasms of TMJ

46. The effective focal spot is

a.     Smaller than the actual focal spot

b.     Usually square in shape

c.     Circular with a 2.75 inch diameter

d.     Larger than the actual focal spot

47. Which of the following helminthic disease is transmitted by direct skin penetration by the larva?

      a.   Filariasis                       b. Onchocercasis

      c.   Dracunculosis               d. Schistosomiasis

48. Intraoral radiographs of a young patient revealed a smoothly outlined 2 cm radiolucent area in the  mandibular molar region. the radiolucency scalloped between the roots of the vital molars. The most likely diagnosis is a

a.       Solitary bone cyst             b. Static bone cavity

c.    Normal maxillary sinus    d. Dentigerous cyst

49. The denture - bearing area covering the incisive  foramen

a.     Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement of nasopalatine nerves and blood vessels

b.     Should not be relieved routinely

c.     Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement on the mental nerve

d.     Is surrounded by a sharp marrow annular ridge

50. After dentin and enamel formation have reached the

        cementaoenamel junction, the cervical loop

a.     Degenerates and disappears

b.     Becomes transformed into epithelial sheath of Hertwing

c.     Forms the membrana preformativa

d.     Forms the cell – free zone

FOR ANSWERS CLICK ANSWERS BELOW

259.Death due to injury in second peak is due to

a.High spinal cord injury
b.Aortal rupture
c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
d.Sepsis

Ans-c.Epidural and subdural hematoma

ref peterson 2nd ed pg 327
death from trauma has a trimodal distribution
first peak
death within seconds or minutes of injury due to laceration of brain,spinal cord or aorta .
second peak
death within first few hours after injury due to nervous system injury or hemmorhage
third peak
death occurd days or weeks after injury due to sepsis,multiple organ failure

258.In a patient with poor neuromuscular control presents with occlusal prematurities.they can be corrected

a.Occlusion is corrected by direct method
b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
c.Patient is asked to chew on carborandum paste
d.No need to estabilish occlusion


Ans-b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
ref winkler pg 328

257.Type A enamel lamella are

a.poorly calcified rod segments
b.degenerated epethilial cells(unerupted teeth)
c.erupted teeth
d.none

Ans-poorly calcified rod segments

256.Palatogingival groove is present in

a.Maxillary central incisor
b.Maxillary lateral incisor
c.Mandibular central incisor
d.Mandibular lateral incisor

Ans-Maxillary lateral incisor

255.All are structures present in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus except

a.occulomotor nerve
b.trochlear nerve
c.maxillary nerve
d.abducent nerve

Ans-d.abducent nerve
Explanation-abducent nerve and internal carotid artery passes through centre of sinus.

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FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT RxDENTISTRY LOVEHUES DENTAL MATRIX

254.Which of the following statement about Carbon monoxide poisoning is true?

a) Hypoxic hypoxia
b) Curve shift towards left
c) Curve shifts to the right
d) Oxygen binding increases

Ans-c) Curve shifts to the right

253.The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in?

a) Prefrontal cortex
b) Hippocampus
c) Neocortex
d) Amygdala

Ans-b) Hippocampus

Explanation:(Ref:Ganong 26th edition Pg 269)

252.Cereals are deficient in?

a) Calcium
b) Iron
c) Vit B
d) Vit C


Ans-d)Vit C


Explanation:“Traces of Vit. C occur in fresh meat and fish But scarcely in cereals”.
(Ref: Park 18th: pg 448)

251.) A person showing two cell lines derived from two different zygotes is?

a) Chimerism
b) Mosaicism
c) Segregation
d) Pseudo-dominance

Ans-a)Chimerism

Explanation:a chimera is an animal that has two or more different populations of genetically distinct cells that originated in different zygotes; if the different cells emerged from the same zygote, it is called a mosaicism.

250.Incidence of natal and neonatal teeth is estimated to be

a.1:2000 and 1:30,000
b.1:1000 and 1:30,000
c.1:3000 and 1:20,000
d.1:4000 and 1:20,000

Ans-b.1:1000 and 1:30,000

249.Syndromes associated with both hyperdontia as well as hypodontia are all except

a.crouzon's disease
b.Down's syndrome
c.Hallerman streiff syndrome
d.Reiger syndrome

Ans-d.Reiger syndrome

248.First clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency

a.corneal xerosis
b.conjuctival xerosis
c.Bitot's spots
d.Night blindness

Ans-b.conjuctival xerosis

Explanation-ref park 18th ed pg 443

247.Great sanitary awakening took place in

a.England
b.America
c.east Asia
d.Russia

Ans-England

Explanation-Ref park 18th ed pg 4

246.Burning foot syndrome is caused by

a.Vitamin B1
b.Vitamin B2
c.Vitamin B3
d.Vitamin B6

Ans-d.Vitamin B6

246. Spirometery cannot be used to measure

a.Functional residual capacity
b.Residual volume
c.Total lung capacity
d.All

Ans-d.All

245.Burning foot syndrome is caused by

a.Vitamin B2
b.Vitamin B3
c.Vitamin B6
d.Vitamin B2

243.Absobtion of Vitamin B12 takes place through

a.deodenum
b.jejunum
c.Illeum
d.Colon

Ans-c.Illeum

242.All of the following drugs causes hyperkalemia except

a.NSAIDS
b.Heparin
c.Amphotericin B
d.cyclosporine

Ans-c.Amphotericin B

241.For how long EDTA remains active within the root canal if not inactivated?

a.5days
b.8days
c.10days
d.15days

Ans-5 days

240.Ruddles'solution contains

a.5%NaOCl&H2o2
b.5%NaOCl,Ca(oH)2& 17%EDTA
c.5%NaOCl,Hypaque& 17%EDTA
d.17%EDTA,Urea peroxide&Propylene glycol

Ans-c.5%NaOCl,Hypaque& 17%EDTA

239.All are true for home bleaching,except

a.Uses 15%carbamide peroxide
b.In addition to bleaching agent carbapol is used
c.Vacuum from vinyl trays are used
d.Both arches bleached simultaneously


Ans-d.Both arches bleached simultaneously

Explanation-sturdvent 4th ed pg 610-612
It is recommended that only one arch be bleached at a time, beginning with maxillary arch.bleaching the maxillary arch first allows theuntreated mandibular arch to serve as a comparison.

238.Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure?

a.Sevoflurane
b.Thiopentone sodium
c.Lignocaine
d.Propofol

Ans-a.Sevoflorane

Explanation-Intracranial pressure increases at high inspired concentrations of Sevoflorane.Ref Aitkinhead 4th/159

Rx Dentistry : A NEW BEGINNING

Rx Dentistry Proudly announces the start of a huge dental discussion forum.

Although Forum's are very common these days , but for those of you don't know..here is what a forum holds in stock for you.

An Internet forum, or message board, is an online  discussion site where people can hold conversations in the form of  posted messages.They differ from chat rooms in that messages  are not shown in real-time, to see new messages the forum page must be  reloaded. Also, depending on the access level of a user and/or the forum  set-up, a posted message might need to be approved by a moderator  before it becomes visible.
Forums have their own language; e.g. A single conversation is called a  'thread'. A forum is hierarchical or tree-like in structure: forum -  subforum - topic - thread - reply.

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237.The blood brain barrier is present in all except

a.Postrema area
b.Subfornical organ
c.Neurohypophysis
d.Habernacular trigone

Ans-d.Habernacular trigone


Explanation:Refer ganong's physiology 22ed pg 615
Remember SONA OR SOAP Subfornical organ
Organum vasculosum
area postrema
posterior pituitary/neurohypophsis

236.Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal and hepatic failure

a.Doxacurium
b.Tubocurarine
c.Pancuronium
d.Atracurium

Ans-d.Atracurium


Isoflorane is also the anaesthetic of choice in renal and hepatic failure
Ref K.D.Tripathi 5th ed pg 314

235.Most common nerve used for monitoring anaesthesia

a.Ulnar nerve
b.Facial nerve
c.Radial nerve
d.Median nerve


Ans-a.Ulnar nerve

Explanation-Ref Ajay yadav Anaesthesia pg 46

234.All of the following muscles are composite muscles except

a.Pectineus
b.Rectus femoris
c.Adductor magnus
d.Biceps femoris

Ans-b.Rectus femoris

Explanation:BDC II /4th ed pg 64/Gray's 39 ed /1467,1469

233.Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following,except:

a.Superior petrosal sinus
b.Inferior petrosal sinus
c.Superfficial middle cerebral vein
d.Deep middle cerebral vein


Ans-a.Deep middle cerebral vein

Ref BDC III/4th ed /pg 94

232.In mass casuality,patients treated first are

a.Patients with life threatening injuries
b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource
c.Treating patients with multiple organ failure&that need equipment and mobility
d.All patients are treated equally


Ans-b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resources


Explanation:Trauma by Moore 4th ed pg 83

231.When a case is transferred to ICU ,mandibular fractures are evaluated in

a.Primary survey
b.Secondary survey
c.Primary survey with IMF
d.Away from resusciation room


Ans-a.Primary survey


Explanation.Ref Fonseca vol 3rd pg 1-2,Peter ward booth pg 31,34