a.Doxacurium
b.Tubocurarine
c.Pancuronium
d.Atracurium
Ans-d.Atracurium
Isoflorane is also the anaesthetic of choice in renal and hepatic failure
Ref K.D.Tripathi 5th ed pg 314
235.Most common nerve used for monitoring anaesthesia
a.Ulnar nerve
b.Facial nerve
c.Radial nerve
d.Median nerve
Ans-a.Ulnar nerve
Explanation-Ref Ajay yadav Anaesthesia pg 46
b.Facial nerve
c.Radial nerve
d.Median nerve
Ans-a.Ulnar nerve
Explanation-Ref Ajay yadav Anaesthesia pg 46
234.All of the following muscles are composite muscles except
a.Pectineus
b.Rectus femoris
c.Adductor magnus
d.Biceps femoris
Ans-b.Rectus femoris
Explanation:BDC II /4th ed pg 64/Gray's 39 ed /1467,1469
b.Rectus femoris
c.Adductor magnus
d.Biceps femoris
Ans-b.Rectus femoris
Explanation:BDC II /4th ed pg 64/Gray's 39 ed /1467,1469
233.Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following,except:
a.Superior petrosal sinus
b.Inferior petrosal sinus
c.Superfficial middle cerebral vein
d.Deep middle cerebral vein
Ans-a.Deep middle cerebral vein
Ref BDC III/4th ed /pg 94
b.Inferior petrosal sinus
c.Superfficial middle cerebral vein
d.Deep middle cerebral vein
Ans-a.Deep middle cerebral vein
Ref BDC III/4th ed /pg 94
232.In mass casuality,patients treated first are
a.Patients with life threatening injuries
b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource
c.Treating patients with multiple organ failure&that need equipment and mobility
d.All patients are treated equally
Ans-b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resources
Explanation:Trauma by Moore 4th ed pg 83
b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource
c.Treating patients with multiple organ failure&that need equipment and mobility
d.All patients are treated equally
Ans-b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resources
Explanation:Trauma by Moore 4th ed pg 83
231.When a case is transferred to ICU ,mandibular fractures are evaluated in
a.Primary survey
b.Secondary survey
c.Primary survey with IMF
d.Away from resusciation room
Ans-a.Primary survey
Explanation.Ref Fonseca vol 3rd pg 1-2,Peter ward booth pg 31,34
b.Secondary survey
c.Primary survey with IMF
d.Away from resusciation room
Ans-a.Primary survey
Explanation.Ref Fonseca vol 3rd pg 1-2,Peter ward booth pg 31,34
230.A person working in a abattior presented with pustules on hand which turned into ulcer,which will best help in diagnosis?
a.Trichome methylene blue
b.Carbol fuschin
c.Acid fast stain
d.Calcoflour white
Ans-a.Trichome methylene blue
Explanation:Ref harrison 16th ed pg 1280
b.Carbol fuschin
c.Acid fast stain
d.Calcoflour white
Ans-a.Trichome methylene blue
Explanation:Ref harrison 16th ed pg 1280
229.Drug of choice to treat hypertension during pregnancy
a.Diuretics
b.Enalapril
c.Reserpine
d.Methyldopa
Ans-d.Methyldopa
Explanation:Ref K.D Tripathi 5th ed pg 517
b.Enalapril
c.Reserpine
d.Methyldopa
Ans-d.Methyldopa
Explanation:Ref K.D Tripathi 5th ed pg 517
228.Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?
a.Reynold's number less than 2000.
b.Decrease in the velocity of the blood.
c.Decrease in density of the blood.
d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.
Ans-d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.
Explanation-Ref ganong22/ed pg 583
reynold's no=density *diameter*velocity/viscosity
b.Decrease in the velocity of the blood.
c.Decrease in density of the blood.
d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.
Ans-d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.
Explanation-Ref ganong22/ed pg 583
reynold's no=density *diameter*velocity/viscosity
227.Name the drug having rapid onset despite high pka (9.1)
a.Procaine
b.Tetracaine
c.Chloroprocaine
d.Bupivacaine
Ans.c.Chloroprocaine
Explanation:Ref KDT 6TH ed pg 353
b.Tetracaine
c.Chloroprocaine
d.Bupivacaine
Ans.c.Chloroprocaine
Explanation:Ref KDT 6TH ed pg 353
226.Drug not used in acute asthma is:
1.Salbutamol.
2.Ipratropium.
3.Montelukast.
4.Hydrocortisone.
Ans:3.Montelukast.
Explanation:KDT 5th ed pg 205
2.Ipratropium.
3.Montelukast.
4.Hydrocortisone.
Ans:3.Montelukast.
Explanation:KDT 5th ed pg 205
225.Which of the following is the action of styloglossus?
1.Acts to protrude the tongue and retract tip of tongue.
2.Acts to pull sides of tongue downward and aids retrusion.
3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
4.Flattens and broadens tongue.
Ans:3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
2.Acts to pull sides of tongue downward and aids retrusion.
3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
4.Flattens and broadens tongue.
Ans:3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
224.Vertebral artery is the branch of:
1.Thyrocervical trunk.
2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
3.Second branch of the subclavian artery.
4.Inferior thyroid artery.
Ans:2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
Explanation:ref gray's anatomy pg928
2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
3.Second branch of the subclavian artery.
4.Inferior thyroid artery.
Ans:2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
Explanation:ref gray's anatomy pg928
223.Which material listed below has historically been the retrofilling material of choice?
a.Composite
b.Zinc-free amalgam
c.Gutta-percha
d. Methyl methacrylate
Ans.b.Zinc-free amalgam
Explanation:A retrofilling (also called a reverse filling or retrograde amalgam filling) is placed to seal the apical
portion of the root canal. This procedure is used when an apicoectom y alone will not yield a good
result. Whenever there is any chance whatsoever that an apical seal may be faulty, a reverse filling
material must be placed.
b.Zinc-free amalgam
c.Gutta-percha
d. Methyl methacrylate
Ans.b.Zinc-free amalgam
Explanation:A retrofilling (also called a reverse filling or retrograde amalgam filling) is placed to seal the apical
portion of the root canal. This procedure is used when an apicoectom y alone will not yield a good
result. Whenever there is any chance whatsoever that an apical seal may be faulty, a reverse filling
material must be placed.
222.The nucleus involved in papez circuit is
a.Pulvinar
b.Intraluminar
c.VPL nucleus
d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.
Ans:d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.
Explanation:Ref Ganong's 22nd ed/256,258
b.Intraluminar
c.VPL nucleus
d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.
Ans:d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.
Explanation:Ref Ganong's 22nd ed/256,258
221. Which of the following statement is correct regarding chemical setting of condensation silicone?
a) Polymerization occurs with repeated elimination of small molecules
b) Polymerization occurs with elimination of single byproduct
c) It occurs by repeated condensation of molecules of monomers
d) Condensation does not occur at all ( AIPG 2010 ) (Repeat: AIPG 2007) \
219.The total pore volume of dark zone is
a.2-4%
b.20-40%
c.5-10%
d.0.1-1%
Ans:a.2-4%
Expalanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed /pg 95
b.20-40%
c.5-10%
d.0.1-1%
Ans:a.2-4%
Expalanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed /pg 95
218.The appearance of streptococcus mutans in pit and fissure caries is usually followed by caries
a.6 to 10 months later
b.2 to 6 months later
c.within 2 months
d.6 to 24 months later
Ans.d.6 to 24 months later
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4 th ed/pg 83
b.2 to 6 months later
c.within 2 months
d.6 to 24 months later
Ans.d.6 to 24 months later
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4 th ed/pg 83
217.Peak rates for the incidence of new carious lesions occurs how many years after eruption of the teeth
a.1 year
b.2 years
c.3 years
d.At the time of eruption
Ans:c.3 years
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed/pg 92
b.2 years
c.3 years
d.At the time of eruption
Ans:c.3 years
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed/pg 92
216.The minimum depth of a detectable carious lesion on a radiograph is
a.500 micrometer
b.1000 micrometer
c.5000 micrometer
d.8000 micrometer
Ans:a.500 micrometer
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed pg102
b.1000 micrometer
c.5000 micrometer
d.8000 micrometer
Ans:a.500 micrometer
Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed pg102
215.The greatest concentration of phosphate in tooth is in the
a.Pulp
b.Enamel
c.Dentin
d.Cementum
Ans:b.Enamel
b.Enamel
c.Dentin
d.Cementum
Ans:b.Enamel
214.Cross resistance of isoniazid is not seen with
a.Rifampicin
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol
Ans:b.Ethionamide
Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol
Ans:b.Ethionamide
Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772
213.Filgastrim is used in treatment of
a.Anaemia
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial
Ans:b.Neutropenia
Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial
Ans:b.Neutropenia
Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440
212. Most common primary malignant tumour of long bones is
a.Osteosarcoma
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma
Ans:a.Osteosarcoma
Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma
Ans:a.Osteosarcoma
Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)
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