a.Maxillary first premolar
b.Mandibular first premolar
c.Maxillary second premolar
d.Mandibular second premolar
Ans-b.Mandibular first premolar
311.All are tumour supressor genes except
a.Rb
b.NF1
c.WT1
d.RET
Ans-RET
Explanation-RET is a proto oncogene
other protooncogenes are
Ras,N-MYC,cyclin D ,ABL
b.NF1
c.WT1
d.RET
Ans-RET
Explanation-RET is a proto oncogene
other protooncogenes are
Ras,N-MYC,cyclin D ,ABL
310.For which of the following dose adjustement is not required in case of liver cirrhosis
a.Lorazepam
b.Theophyline
c.PCM
d.Metronidazole
Ans-a.Lorazepam
Ref Katzung 10th ed pg 985
b.Theophyline
c.PCM
d.Metronidazole
Ans-a.Lorazepam
Ref Katzung 10th ed pg 985
COMED K POST GRADUATE DENTAL ENTRACE EXAM MOCK TESTS
COMED K PGET forms are out and application can be sent online from their website. COMED K is the biggest exam for all MDS aspirants looking for seats in private colleges . More than 300 seats available, therefore one of the most important exam after AIPG.
Few commonly Asked Questions:
Q.1 > Are Non Karnataka residents eligible for exam?
A.1 > Yes , Comed k is open to All india students.
Q.2 > I've passed my BDS from outside karnataka , am i eligible?
A.2 > Yes, again. However students who have passed BDS from karnataka will also be eligible for kcet.
Q.3 > How fair is the exam?
A.3 > Examination system is very transparent , so one should expect very less fixing, unlike many other private college exams.
Q.4 > How tough is the exam?
A.4 > COMED K sets high standards. Question bank is very good , but you cannot say the exam is tough, generally they come out with what is called a 'Good Paper' or A Balanced Paper.
Q.5 > No. of Questions in exam?
A.5 > 180 (6 from most subjects, 12 from others , see prospectus)
Q.6 > How much paper is repeated from previous years?
A.6 > Not as much as in AIPG. But yes few Questions are definately repeated.
Q.7 > What is the average cut off?
A.7 > It depends on the paper , but anyone who score 125 and above normally gets a seat.
Q.8 > Which subjects dominate in exam?
A.8 > All subjects are equally covered. There is a complete distribution of subjects , refer prospectus.Fact based Question are important. There is no negative marking.
HERE IS A GUESS PAPER FOR THOSE WHO WANT TO CRACK IT THIS TIME;
ON POPULAR DEMAND WE HAVE LAUNCHED AN
ONLINE COMED K /KCET MOCK TEST SERIES STARTING 15TH JANUARY, 2011
@ 2000/- INR ONLY JOIN NOW.
SCHEDULE:
Few commonly Asked Questions:
Q.1 > Are Non Karnataka residents eligible for exam?
A.1 > Yes , Comed k is open to All india students.
Q.2 > I've passed my BDS from outside karnataka , am i eligible?
A.2 > Yes, again. However students who have passed BDS from karnataka will also be eligible for kcet.
Q.3 > How fair is the exam?
A.3 > Examination system is very transparent , so one should expect very less fixing, unlike many other private college exams.
Q.4 > How tough is the exam?
A.4 > COMED K sets high standards. Question bank is very good , but you cannot say the exam is tough, generally they come out with what is called a 'Good Paper' or A Balanced Paper.
Q.5 > No. of Questions in exam?
A.5 > 180 (6 from most subjects, 12 from others , see prospectus)
Q.6 > How much paper is repeated from previous years?
A.6 > Not as much as in AIPG. But yes few Questions are definately repeated.
Q.7 > What is the average cut off?
A.7 > It depends on the paper , but anyone who score 125 and above normally gets a seat.
Q.8 > Which subjects dominate in exam?
A.8 > All subjects are equally covered. There is a complete distribution of subjects , refer prospectus.Fact based Question are important. There is no negative marking.
HERE IS A GUESS PAPER FOR THOSE WHO WANT TO CRACK IT THIS TIME;
ON POPULAR DEMAND WE HAVE LAUNCHED AN
ONLINE COMED K /KCET MOCK TEST SERIES STARTING 15TH JANUARY, 2011
@ 2000/- INR ONLY JOIN NOW.
SCHEDULE:
15th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 1 |
16th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 2 |
17th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 3 |
18th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 4 |
19th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 5 |
20th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 6 |
21st January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 7 |
22nd January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 8 |
23rd January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 9 |
24th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 10 |
25th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 11 |
26th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 12 |
27th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 13 |
28th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 14 |
29th January,2011 | COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 15 |
6th February,2011 | All the Best !! |
TOTAL TESTS :15 (3000 MCQ'S)
FEE: INR 2000/- OR US $ 50 (ONE TIME CHARGES)
FOR ENQUIRES PLEASE CONTACT : +919780009420
visit : www.rxdentistry.co.in
260- 309 : DENTAL MCQ'S: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Glutathione is a tripeptide of
a. Glutamic acid, glycine and cysteine
b. Glycine, cystine, serine
c. Glutamic acid, serine
d. Glutamic acid, arginine, lysine
2. In the practice of occlusal equilibration, which of the following is undertaken?
a. Anterior splint therapy Maxillary training
b. Maxillary training
c. osterior eccentric interferences are removed, resulting In less muscle stress
d. The production of an overlap of the anterior teeth
3. Branches of third part of maxillary artery are all
except
a. Sphenopalatine b. Middle meningeal
c. Greater palatine. d. Posterior superior alveolar
4. NBT is a test of
a. Phagocytic capacity b. Complement activity
c. Cellular immunity d. Humoral immunity.
5. Hematosis is dependent upon all except
a. Vessel wall b. Blood viscosity
b. Platelet d. Coagulation system
6. The most common complication following the
extraction of a tooth is
a. Alveolar osteitis b. Dental caries
c. Actinomycosis d. Alveolar abscess
7. Truss arm is
a. Reciprocal arm b. Retentive arm
c. Minor connector d. Major connector
8. An elderly subject, complains of facial muscle
weakness, difficulty in chewing and swallowing and
speech. There is a history of his father also having
had the same symptoms, he is probably suffering
from:
a. Horner’s syndrome b. Bulbar palsy
c. Pseudobulbar palsy d. Orofacial dyskinesia
9. Anachoretic pulpitis is:
a. Transient pulpitis
b. Acute subtotal pulpitis
c. Bacterial infection of pulp
d. None of the above
10. Bordetella colonies appear as
a. Dew drop b. Mercury drop
c. Green d. None of the above
11. Early synostosis of sutures occurs in
a. Craniofacial dysostosi b. Marble bone disease
. c. Osteitis deformans d. Cherubism
12. In the treatment of oral lichen planus , one of the drug usually used is:
a. Streptomycin b. Amphoterecin B
c. tertracyline d. None of the above
13. Endospores are formed by
a. Clostridia b. Corynebacteria
c. Cyanobacteria d. Actinomyces
14. Among the following disease which is not associated with enlargement of jaw bones.
a. Paget’s disease of the bone
b. Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis
c. Ossifying fibroma
d. Central giant cell granuloma
15. Histopathologically, the first sign in pulp,l which show that irreversible pulpitis has set in is:
a. Inflammation in subodontogenic zone
b. Micorabscesses
c. Pulpal necrosis
d. Wheat sheaf appearance
16. Contraindications to bridges are
a. When space is of such length that additional load will impair tissue health around abutments.
b. When the space length requires a beam of a such Mension that embrasures will be greatly reduced and underlyin tissue overprotected
c. When previous prosthesis produced an unfavorable reaction in mucous membrane
d. All of the above
17. The racial isolate in dentiongenesis imperfecta is:
a. Type 1 b. Type 11 c. Type 111 d. Type IV
18. Which of the following is a mismatch
a. a.Haemochromatosis -disorder or iron metabolism
b. b.Haematemesis -vomiting of blood
c. Hemoglobinuria- the presence of RBC in urine
d. d.Haemostas - the arrest of bleeding
19. A 32 years old female has got oral cancer, the site where it is least likely to be situated is:
a. Lips b. Faucial pillars
c. Palate d. Ventral surface of tongue
20. Requirements (intangibles) of bridge construction include
a. Forces developed by the oral mechanism and by theresistance of the tooth and supporting tissue to them
b. Modifications of normal tooth form that reduce forces or increase resistance to them
c. Establishing normal tissue tone
d. All of the above
21. Basal cell carcinoma usually presents in
a. Upper third face b. Middle third face
c. Around chin d. Intraorally
22. Porcelain should be the material of choice
a. When a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
b. When the material is to be used without the support of metal
c. For other than for veneer purposes
d. Since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue
23. In anorexia nervosa one of the clinical entities
usually observed is:
a. Peripapical radiolucencies b. Abrasion of ant teeth
c. Erosion of teeth d. None of the above
24. Battle sign is associated with
a. Fracture zygoma
b. Fracture anterior cranial fossa
c. Fracture middle cranial fossa
d. Fracture naso ethmoid
25. Anemia occurs in renal failure due to
a. Decreased RBC production b. Blood loss
c. Increased RBC destruction d. All of the above.
26. Broken – down vital teeth may be used as an abutment for a full crown retainer
a. Never
b. When iridioplatium wire in the form of a staple is used for reinforcement
c. After placing silver alloy filling
d. After placing oxyphosphate of zinc cement
27. The choice of method of tooth replacement should be considered in which of the following orders?
a. Fixed partial denture, complete denture, removable partial denture
b. Complete denture, fixed and removable partial denture
c. Removable partial, complete denture, fixed partial denture
d. Fixed partial denture, removable partial denture, complete denture
28. Among the following, in which patent GA is a contraindicated
a. An adult male over 65 yrs of age
b. Patient with acute respiratory infection
c. Child under 6 yrs of age
d. Patient with well compensated heart disease
29. A disadvantage of the direct method for constructing fixed partial dentures is
a. It cannot be readily used for all types of retainers
b. It requires more appointments than the indirect method
c. Marginal adaptation of retainers is difficult to obtain
d. All of the above
30. The feature which is not seen in Marfan’s syndrome
a. Arachnodactyly b. Dolichostenomelia
c. Buifid uvula d. Cleft palate
31. When one or more distal extension bases are involved, which of the following factor must be considered
a. Need for indirect retention
b. Clasp designs which minimize one forces applied to the abutment during function
c. Need for later rebasing
d. All of the above
32. Rigidity of the major connector may be made more certain by employing one or more of which of the
following?
a. Use a cast rather than a wrought iron connector
b. Avoid a flat or ribbon – shaped connection
c. Increase the bulk of a major connector
d. All of the above
33. Which of the following are serious defects inherent in a radiographic method of determining the balance of the patient’s supporting bone?
a. Favorable appliance support may be found in patients having less dense bone as well as those having bone which is dense
b. There is a lack of agreement of whether dense or less Dense bone assumed extra work loads with least tendency to atrophic change
c. The apparent density of the alveolar bone varies in the same specimen when there is a change in the angulation of film or in exposure or processing
d. All of the above
34. An advantage of hydrocolloid materials for partial
denture is
a. It will remove from undercut areas without permanently deforming or tearing
b. It is a one – piece impression
c. No separating medium is required
d. All of the above
35. Denture stability is enhanced
a. By placing the occlusal areas distant from their support
b. By placing occlusal areas close to their support
c. When the patient does not chew vertically
d. By not centralizing the occlusal areas
36. A pathologic occlusion can be modified to a
therapeutic occlusion by correcting
a. Alignment
b. Esthetics
c. Inter arch relationships
d. All of the above
37. Inflammatory reaction of basal mucosa is the result of
a. Removing dentures to allow tissue to rest
b. Absence of hyperemia
c. Endocrine disturbance
d. Good oral hygiene
38. Setting teeth with their long axes parallel to each other
a. Produces very natural looking teeth
b. Causes people to be happy with their dentures
c. Never causes patients to be irritated by the appearance of their dentures.
d. Produces an artificial appearance to the dentures.
39. The isolation of Streptococcus mutans nears 100%
a. At birth
b. When the deciduous incisors erupt
c. When the permanent incisors erupt
d. Adulthood
40. Which of the following are physical properties of
the lectithins?
a. When purified they are waxy white substances
b. They are soluble in fat solvents with the exception of acetone
c. They are hygroscopic and mix well with water to form colloidal solution
d. They are all of the above
41. Characteristics of lipids include which of the following
a. Solubility in ether ( organic solvents)
b. Solubility in chloroform ( organic solvents)
c. Presence of esterified fatty acids
d. All of the above
42. A marked increase in tongue coating is usually associated with
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Late stage of scarlet fever
c. Median rhomboid glossitis
d. Disturbances in oral physiology
43. The developing mandible grows backward (not surrounding Meckel’s cartilage) to form
a. The incus and malleus b. The otic capsule
c. The hyoid cartilage d. The coronoid process
44. Gastric juice is composed of
a. 50% water and 50% organic substances
b. 70% water and 30% inorganic substances
c. 99.4% water and solids (organic substances and in organic constituents)
d. None of the above
45. Malposition of the mandible due to occlusal disharmony
a. May result in muscular imbalance, trismus, and pain
b. Caused drifting of teeth
c. Causes sleeping habits
d. Results in neoplasms of TMJ
46. The effective focal spot is
a. Smaller than the actual focal spot
b. Usually square in shape
c. Circular with a 2.75 inch diameter
d. Larger than the actual focal spot
47. Which of the following helminthic disease is transmitted by direct skin penetration by the larva?
a. Filariasis b. Onchocercasis
c. Dracunculosis d. Schistosomiasis
48. Intraoral radiographs of a young patient revealed a smoothly outlined 2 cm radiolucent area in the mandibular molar region. the radiolucency scalloped between the roots of the vital molars. The most likely diagnosis is a
a. Solitary bone cyst b. Static bone cavity
c. Normal maxillary sinus d. Dentigerous cyst
49. The denture - bearing area covering the incisive foramen
a. Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement of nasopalatine nerves and blood vessels
b. Should not be relieved routinely
c. Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement on the mental nerve
d. Is surrounded by a sharp marrow annular ridge
50. After dentin and enamel formation have reached the
cementaoenamel junction, the cervical loop
a. Degenerates and disappears
b. Becomes transformed into epithelial sheath of Hertwing
c. Forms the membrana preformativa
d. Forms the cell – free zone
FOR ANSWERS CLICK ANSWERS BELOW
Labels:
AIPG
259.Death due to injury in second peak is due to
a.High spinal cord injury
b.Aortal rupture
c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
d.Sepsis
Ans-c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
ref peterson 2nd ed pg 327
death from trauma has a trimodal distribution
first peak
death within seconds or minutes of injury due to laceration of brain,spinal cord or aorta .
second peak
death within first few hours after injury due to nervous system injury or hemmorhage
third peak
death occurd days or weeks after injury due to sepsis,multiple organ failure
b.Aortal rupture
c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
d.Sepsis
Ans-c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
ref peterson 2nd ed pg 327
death from trauma has a trimodal distribution
first peak
death within seconds or minutes of injury due to laceration of brain,spinal cord or aorta .
second peak
death within first few hours after injury due to nervous system injury or hemmorhage
third peak
death occurd days or weeks after injury due to sepsis,multiple organ failure
258.In a patient with poor neuromuscular control presents with occlusal prematurities.they can be corrected
a.Occlusion is corrected by direct method
b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
c.Patient is asked to chew on carborandum paste
d.No need to estabilish occlusion
Ans-b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
ref winkler pg 328
b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
c.Patient is asked to chew on carborandum paste
d.No need to estabilish occlusion
Ans-b.Interocclusal record is made and transferred to articulator
ref winkler pg 328
257.Type A enamel lamella are
a.poorly calcified rod segments
b.degenerated epethilial cells(unerupted teeth)
c.erupted teeth
d.none
Ans-poorly calcified rod segments
b.degenerated epethilial cells(unerupted teeth)
c.erupted teeth
d.none
Ans-poorly calcified rod segments
256.Palatogingival groove is present in
a.Maxillary central incisor
b.Maxillary lateral incisor
c.Mandibular central incisor
d.Mandibular lateral incisor
Ans-Maxillary lateral incisor
b.Maxillary lateral incisor
c.Mandibular central incisor
d.Mandibular lateral incisor
Ans-Maxillary lateral incisor
255.All are structures present in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus except
a.occulomotor nerve
b.trochlear nerve
c.maxillary nerve
d.abducent nerve
Ans-d.abducent nerve
Explanation-abducent nerve and internal carotid artery passes through centre of sinus.
b.trochlear nerve
c.maxillary nerve
d.abducent nerve
Ans-d.abducent nerve
Explanation-abducent nerve and internal carotid artery passes through centre of sinus.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
MCQ'S SEARCH ENGINE
Custom Search
CLICK ON "OLDER POSTS" ABOVE FOR MORE................