COMED K POST GRADUATE DENTAL ENTRACE EXAM MOCK TESTS

 COMED K PGET forms are out and application can be sent online from their website. COMED K is the biggest exam for all MDS aspirants looking for seats in private colleges . More than 300 seats available, therefore one of the most important exam after AIPG.

Few commonly Asked Questions:

Q.1 > Are Non Karnataka residents eligible for exam?
A.1 > Yes , Comed  k is open to All india students.

Q.2 > I've passed my BDS from outside karnataka , am i eligible?
A.2 > Yes, again. However students who have passed BDS from karnataka will also be eligible for kcet.

Q.3 > How fair is the exam?
A.3 > Examination system is very transparent , so one should expect very less fixing, unlike many other private college exams.

Q.4 > How tough is the exam?
A.4 > COMED K sets high standards. Question bank is very good , but you cannot say the exam is tough, generally they come out with what is called a 'Good Paper' or A Balanced Paper.

Q.5 > No. of Questions in exam?
A.5 > 180 (6 from most subjects, 12 from others , see prospectus)

Q.6 > How much paper is repeated from previous years?
A.6 > Not as much as in AIPG. But yes few Questions are definately repeated.

Q.7 > What is the average cut off?
A.7 > It depends on the paper , but anyone who score 125 and above normally gets a seat.

Q.8 > Which subjects dominate in exam?
A.8 > All subjects are equally covered. There is a complete distribution of subjects , refer prospectus.Fact based Question are important. There is no negative marking.

HERE IS A GUESS PAPER FOR THOSE WHO WANT TO CRACK IT THIS TIME;
ON POPULAR DEMAND WE HAVE LAUNCHED AN

ONLINE COMED K /KCET  MOCK TEST SERIES  STARTING 15TH JANUARY, 2011

@ 2000/- INR ONLY JOIN NOW.

SCHEDULE:
15th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 1
16th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 2
17th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 3
18th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 4
19th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 5
20th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 6
21st January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 7
22nd January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 8
23rd January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 9
24th  January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 10
25th  January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 11
26th  January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 12
27th  January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 13
28th  January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 14
29th January,2011 COMED K SIMULATED MOCK TEST 15
6th February,2011 All the Best !!


               TOTAL TESTS :15 (3000 MCQ'S)
               FEE: INR 2000/- OR US $ 50 (ONE TIME CHARGES)
                    FOR  ENQUIRES PLEASE CONTACT : +919780009420                     

260- 309 : DENTAL MCQ'S: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

 
1.     Glutathione is a tripeptide of
a.       Glutamic acid, glycine and  cysteine 
b.       Glycine, cystine, serine
c.        Glutamic acid, serine                   
d.       Glutamic acid, arginine, lysine

2.     In the practice of occlusal equilibration, which of the following is undertaken?
a.       Anterior splint therapy Maxillary training                      
b.       Maxillary training                                                   
c.        osterior eccentric interferences are removed, resulting In less muscle stress
d.       The production of an overlap of the anterior teeth

3.     Branches of third part of maxillary artery are all
except
    a.  Sphenopalatine                 b. Middle meningeal
    c.  Greater palatine.              d. Posterior superior alveolar

4.     NBT is a test of
    a.  Phagocytic capacity     b. Complement activity
       c.  Cellular immunity        d. Humoral immunity.

5.     Hematosis is dependent upon all except
    a.  Vessel wall                  b. Blood viscosity
    b.  Platelet                        d. Coagulation system

6.     The most common complication following the
        extraction of a tooth is
    a.  Alveolar osteitis            b. Dental caries
    c.  Actinomycosis              d. Alveolar abscess 

7.     Truss arm is
       a.  Reciprocal arm             b. Retentive arm
       c.  Minor connector           d. Major connector

8.     An elderly subject, complains of facial muscle
        weakness, difficulty in chewing and swallowing and
        speech. There is a history of his father also having
        had the same symptoms, he is probably suffering
        from:
      a.   Horner’s syndrome       b. Bulbar palsy
      c.   Pseudobulbar palsy      d. Orofacial dyskinesia

9.     Anachoretic pulpitis is:
a.       Transient pulpitis             
b.       Acute subtotal pulpitis
c.        Bacterial infection of pulp
d.       None of the above

10. Bordetella colonies appear as
       a.  Dew drop                       b. Mercury drop
       c.  Green                            d. None of the above

11. Early synostosis of sutures occurs in
   a.  Craniofacial dysostosi   b. Marble bone disease
 .    c.  Osteitis deformans        d. Cherubism

12. In the treatment of oral lichen planus , one of the drug usually used is:
       a.  Streptomycin                 b. Amphoterecin B
       c.  tertracyline                    d. None of the above
13.  Endospores are formed by
       a.  Clostridia                        b. Corynebacteria
       c.  Cyanobacteria                d. Actinomyces

14. Among the following disease which is not associated with enlargement of jaw bones.
a.     Paget’s disease of the bone
b.     Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis
c.     Ossifying fibroma
d.     Central giant cell granuloma

15. Histopathologically, the first sign in pulp,l which show  that irreversible pulpitis has set in is:
a.     Inflammation in subodontogenic zone
b.     Micorabscesses
c.     Pulpal necrosis
d.     Wheat sheaf appearance

16. Contraindications to bridges are
a.     When space is of such length that additional load will impair tissue health around abutments.
b.     When the space length requires a beam of a such Mension that embrasures will be greatly reduced and underlyin  tissue  overprotected
c.     When previous prosthesis produced an unfavorable reaction in mucous membrane
d.     All of the above

17. The racial isolate in dentiongenesis imperfecta is:
      a.   Type 1      b. Type 11      c.  Type 111       d. Type IV                 

18. Which of the following is a mismatch
a.     a.Haemochromatosis -disorder or iron metabolism
b.     b.Haematemesis -vomiting of blood
c.     Hemoglobinuria- the presence of RBC in urine
d.     d.Haemostas - the arrest of bleeding

19. A 32 years old female has got oral cancer, the site where it  is least likely to be situated is:
       a.   Lips                                   b. Faucial pillars
       c.   Palate                                d. Ventral surface of tongue

20. Requirements (intangibles) of bridge construction include
a.      Forces developed by the oral mechanism and by theresistance of the tooth and supporting tissue to them
b.      Modifications of normal tooth form that reduce forces or increase resistance to them
c.      Establishing normal tissue tone
d.      All of the above

21. Basal cell carcinoma usually presents in
      a.   Upper third face          b. Middle third face
      c.    Around chin                d. Intraorally

22. Porcelain should be the material of choice
a.     When a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
b.     When the material is to be used without the support of metal
c.     For other than for veneer purposes
d.     Since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue

23. In anorexia nervosa one of the clinical entities
        usually observed is:
      a.  Peripapical radiolucencies          b. Abrasion of ant teeth
      c.  Erosion of teeth                            d. None of the above
 24. Battle sign is associated with
a.     Fracture zygoma   
b.     Fracture anterior cranial fossa
c.     Fracture middle cranial fossa
d.     Fracture naso ethmoid

 25. Anemia occurs in renal failure due to
       a.  Decreased RBC production        b. Blood loss
       c.  Increased RBC destruction         d. All of the above.

 26. Broken – down vital teeth may be used as an abutment for a full crown retainer
a.      Never
b.     When iridioplatium wire in the form of a staple is used for reinforcement
c.     After placing silver alloy filling
d.     After placing oxyphosphate of zinc cement

 27. The choice of method of tooth replacement should be considered in which of the following orders?
a.     Fixed partial denture, complete denture, removable partial denture
b.     Complete denture, fixed and removable partial denture
c.     Removable partial, complete denture, fixed partial denture
d.     Fixed partial denture, removable partial denture, complete denture

  28. Among the following, in which patent GA is a contraindicated
a.     An adult male over 65 yrs of age
b.     Patient with acute respiratory infection
c.     Child under 6 yrs of age
d.     Patient with well compensated heart disease

 29. A disadvantage of the direct method  for constructing fixed partial dentures is
a.     It cannot be readily used for all types of retainers
b.     It requires more appointments than the indirect method
c.     Marginal adaptation of retainers is difficult to obtain
d.     All of the above

 30. The feature which is not seen in Marfan’s syndrome 
       a. Arachnodactyly               b. Dolichostenomelia
       c. Buifid uvula                     d. Cleft palate

 31. When one or more distal extension bases are  involved, which of the following factor must be  considered
a.     Need for indirect retention
b.     Clasp designs which minimize one forces applied to the abutment during function
c.     Need for later rebasing
d.     All of the above

32. Rigidity of the major connector may be made more certain by employing one or more of which of the
      following?
a.     Use a cast rather than a wrought iron connector
b.     Avoid a flat or ribbon – shaped connection
c.     Increase the bulk of a major connector
d.     All of the above
33. Which of the following are serious defects inherent in a radiographic method of determining the balance of the patient’s supporting bone?
a.     Favorable appliance support may be found in patients having less dense bone as well as those having bone  which is dense
b.     There is a lack of agreement of whether dense or less Dense bone assumed extra work loads with least  tendency  to atrophic change
c.     The apparent density of the alveolar bone varies in the same specimen when there is a change in the angulation of  film or in exposure or processing
d.     All of the above

34. An advantage of hydrocolloid materials for partial
      denture is
a.     It will remove from undercut areas without permanently deforming or tearing
b.     It is a one – piece impression
c.     No separating medium is required  
d.     All of the above

35. Denture stability is enhanced
a.     By placing the occlusal areas distant from their support
b.     By placing occlusal areas close to their support
c.     When the patient does not chew vertically
d.     By not centralizing the occlusal areas

36. A pathologic occlusion can be modified to a
      therapeutic occlusion by correcting
a.       Alignment                     
b.       Esthetics
c.        Inter arch relationships 
d.       All of the above

37. Inflammatory reaction of basal mucosa is the result of   
a.       Removing dentures to allow tissue to rest
b.       Absence of hyperemia
c.        Endocrine disturbance    
d.       Good oral hygiene

38. Setting teeth with their long axes parallel to each other
a.     Produces very natural looking teeth
b.     Causes people to be happy with their dentures
c.     Never causes patients to be irritated by the appearance of their dentures.
d.     Produces an artificial appearance to the dentures.

39. The isolation of Streptococcus mutans nears 100%
a.     At birth             
b.     When the deciduous incisors erupt
c.     When the permanent incisors erupt  
d.     Adulthood

40. Which of the following are physical properties of
      the lectithins?
a.     When purified they are waxy white substances
b.     They are soluble in fat solvents with the exception of  acetone
c.     They are hygroscopic and mix well with water to form colloidal solution
d.     They are all of the above
41. Characteristics of lipids include which of the following
a.     Solubility in ether ( organic solvents)
b.     Solubility in chloroform ( organic solvents)
c.     Presence of esterified fatty acids
d.     All of the above

42. A marked increase in tongue coating is usually associated with
a.     Pernicious anemia
b.     Late stage of scarlet fever
c.     Median rhomboid glossitis
d.     Disturbances in oral physiology

43. The developing mandible grows backward (not surrounding  Meckel’s cartilage) to form
       a.  The incus and malleus       b. The otic capsule
       c.   The hyoid cartilage           d. The coronoid process

44. Gastric juice is composed of
a.     50% water and 50% organic substances
b.     70% water and 30% inorganic substances
c.     99.4% water and solids (organic substances and in   organic  constituents)
d.     None of the above

45. Malposition of the mandible due to occlusal  disharmony
a.     May result in muscular imbalance, trismus, and pain
b.     Caused drifting of teeth
c.     Causes sleeping habits
d.     Results in neoplasms of TMJ

46. The effective focal spot is
a.     Smaller than the actual focal spot
b.     Usually square in shape
c.     Circular with a 2.75 inch diameter
d.     Larger than the actual focal spot

47. Which of the following helminthic disease is transmitted by direct skin penetration by the larva?
      a.   Filariasis                       b. Onchocercasis
      c.   Dracunculosis               d. Schistosomiasis

48. Intraoral radiographs of a young patient revealed a smoothly outlined 2 cm radiolucent area in the  mandibular molar region. the radiolucency scalloped between the roots of the vital molars. The most likely diagnosis is a
a.       Solitary bone cyst             b. Static bone cavity
c.    Normal maxillary sinus    d. Dentigerous cyst

49. The denture - bearing area covering the incisive  foramen
a.     Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement of nasopalatine nerves and blood vessels
b.     Should not be relieved routinely
c.     Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement on the mental nerve
d.     Is surrounded by a sharp marrow annular ridge

50. After dentin and enamel formation have reached the
        cementaoenamel junction, the cervical loop
a.     Degenerates and disappears
b.     Becomes transformed into epithelial sheath of Hertwing
c.     Forms the membrana preformativa
d.     Forms the cell – free zone

FOR ANSWERS CLICK ANSWERS BELOW


259.Death due to injury in second peak is due to

a.High spinal cord injury
b.Aortal rupture
c.Epidural and subdural hematoma
d.Sepsis

Ans-c.Epidural and subdural hematoma

ref peterson 2nd ed pg 327
death from trauma has a trimodal distribution
first peak
death within seconds or minutes of injury due to laceration of brain,spinal cord or aorta .
second peak
death within first few hours after injury due to nervous system injury or hemmorhage
third peak
death occurd days or weeks after injury due to sepsis,multiple organ failure

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