a.Pulp
b.Enamel
c.Dentin
d.Cementum
Ans:b.Enamel
214.Cross resistance of isoniazid is not seen with
a.Rifampicin
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol
Ans:b.Ethionamide
Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol
Ans:b.Ethionamide
Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772
213.Filgastrim is used in treatment of
a.Anaemia
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial
Ans:b.Neutropenia
Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial
Ans:b.Neutropenia
Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440
212. Most common primary malignant tumour of long bones is
a.Osteosarcoma
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma
Ans:a.Osteosarcoma
Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma
Ans:a.Osteosarcoma
Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)
Rx Dentistry's Online MDS ENTRANCE COACHING :5TH SEPT
FRESH BATCH STARTING 5TH SEPTEMBER,2010 @ ONLY INR 4000/-
FOR MORE DETAILS ON SCHEDULE VISIT : HERE
FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT RxDENTISTRY LOVEHUES DENTAL MATRIX
ONLINE NBDE TEST SERIES (NEW BATCH) 25 TH JULY
ONLINE SUBJECT WISE TEST SERIES
20 subject-wise + 5 mock tests.
Subject wise test will be 200 Q each
Mock Test will be 400 Q each
Total of 6000 Mcq's
Simulate actual exam pattern, which helps in familiarization.
All tests prepared from recent exams and remembered Q, specially worked out for NBDE aspirants by a team of experts.
Subject-wise tests provides motivation to study and gives easy planning of preparation.
Scores of each exam gives you self-assessment and self-realization to study.
Total fee: 6500/-(INR) (130 US Dollar)
*** Starting 25th July, 2010 (NEW BATCH)
25th July,2010 | ANATOMIC SCIENCES 2 (HISTOLOGY) & PHYSIOLOGY 1 |
1st August,2010 | ANATOMIC SCIENCES 3 (EMBRYOLOGY) & PATHOLOGY 1 |
8th August,2010 | BIOCHEMISTRY 1 & PHYSIOLOGY 2 |
15th August ,2010 | BIOCHEMISTRY 2 & PATHOLOGY 2 |
22nd August , 2010 | MICROBIOLOGY 1 & ANATOMIC SCIENCES 4(COMPLETE) |
29th August , 2010 | DA 1 & DH 1 |
5th September, 2010 | MICROBIOLOGY 2 & PHYSIO- BIOCHEM |
12th September, 2010 | DA 2 & DH 2 |
19th September, 2010 | PATHO-MICRO & DADH |
26th September, 2010 | GRAND TEST 1 |
3rd October, 2010 | GRAND TEST 2 |
10th October, 2010 | Mock Test 3 |
17th October, 2010 | Mock Test 4 |
24th October, 2010 | Mock Test 5 |
ΓΌ TOTAL TEST :25
TOTAL MCQ'S: 6000
FEE: INR 6500/- OR US$ 130(ONE TIME CHARGES)
FOR ENQUIRES PLEASE CONTACT : +919780009420More info @ http://www.rxdentistry.co.in
If any link is broken or not working please report at dr_madaan_10@yahoo.com $6.00 Welcome Survey After Free Registration!
ONLINE MDS ENTRANCE TEST SERIES
MDS SUBJECT WISE TEST SERIES
- STARTING 30TH MAY,2010 #
- 17 subject-wise + 5 AIIMS +4 AIPG mock tests +1 GRAND (TOTAL 27 TESTS)
- Subject wise test will be 200 Q each
- Mock Test will be 200 Q each (90 Q AIIMS mock )
- Total of 5000 Mcq's
- Simulate actual exam pattern, which helps in familiarization.
- All tests prepared from recent exams and remembered Q, specially worked out for MDS aspirants by a team of experts.
- Subject-wise tests provides motivation to study and gives easy planning of preparation.
- Scores of each exam gives you self-assessment and self-realization to study.
- Total fee: 4000/-(INR) (85 US Dollar).
- MDS SUBJECT WISE TEST SERIES (ONLINE)
30th May,2010ORAL PATHOLOGY6th June , 2010ORAL MEDICINE & RADIOLOGY13th June, 2010DA-DH20th June, 2010PEDODONTICS27th June, 2010ORTHODONTICS4th July, 2010PERIODONTICS11th July, 2010COMMUNITY & PREVENTIVE DENTISTRY18th July, 2010ANATOMY25th July, 2010ORAL SURGERY AND GEN. SURGERY1st August, 2010PHYSIOLOGY8th August, 2010BIOCHEMISTRY15th August, 2010MICROBIOLOGY22nd August, 2010PATHOLOGY29th August, 2010DENTAL MATERIALS & PROSTHODONTICS5th September, 2010DENTAL MATERIALS & CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY12th September, 2010ENDODONTICS19th September, 2010PHARMACOLOGY & GEN. MEDICINE26th September, 2010AIPG SIMULATED MOCK TEST 13rd October, 2010AIPG SIMULATED MOCK TEST 210th October, 2010AIPG SIMULATED MOCK TEST 317th October,2010AIIMS SIMULATED MOCK TEST 124th October,2010AIIMS SIMULATED MOCK TEST 231st October, 2010AIIMS SIMULATED MOCK TEST 37TH November ,2010AIIMS SIMULATED MOCK TEST 421st November, 2010AIPG SIMULATED MOCK TEST 428th November, 2010AIPG SIMULATED MOCK TEST 55th November, 2010AIPG SIMULATED GRAND MOCK TEST
TOTAL MCQ'S: 5000FEE: INR 4000/- OR US $80 (ONE TIME CHARGES)FOR ENQUIRES PLEASE CONTACT : +919780009420 begin_of_the_skype_highlighting +919780009420 begin_of_the_skype_highlighting +919780009420 end_of_the_skype_highlighting end_of_the_skype_highlighting
FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT RxDENTISTRY LOVEHUES DENTAL MATRIX
AIPG MDS 2010 QUESTION PAPER : DENTAL MATRIX
- FULLY SOLVED
- WITH COMPLETE EXPLANATIONS
- STANDARD BOOK REFERENCES
FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT RxDENTISTRY LOVEHUES DENTAL MATRIX
ONLINE NBDE TEST SERIES - SUBJECT - WISE (2nd MAY TO 8th AUGUST)
ONLINE NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION (NBDE PART I) SUBJECT - WISE TEST SERIES .......to Crack The NBDE.
Sailent Features and Course Offered
SUBJECT WISE TEST SERIES
- 20 subject-wise + 5 mock tests.
- Subject wise test will be 200 Q each
- Mock Test will be 400 Q each
- Total of 6000 Mcq's
- Simulate actual exam pattern, which helps in familiarization.
- All tests prepared from recent exams and remembered Q, specially worked out for NBDE aspirants by a team of experts.
- Subject-wise tests provides motivation to study and gives easy planning of preparation.
- Scores of each exam gives you self-assessment and self-realization to study.
- Total fee: 6500/-(INR) (130 US $) JOIN NOW
MOCK-TEST SERIES (will be started later -On)
- 10 mock tests on NBDE pattern
- 400 Q each
- Real examination experience and feel
- Self- assessment before the actual exam
- Total fee : 2500/- (INR) (50 US $)
Schedule
Subject Wise Test Series (2nd May , 2010 to 8th August, 2010)
1. 2nd May, 2010 - ANATOMIC SCIENCES 1 (GENERAL) 2. 9th May, 2010 - ANATOMIC SCIENCES 2 (HISTOLOGY) & PHYSIOLOGY 1 3. 16th May, 2010 -ANATOMIC SCIENCES 3 (EMBRYOLOGY) & PATHOLOGY 1 4. 23rd May, 2010 -BIOCHEMISTRY 1 & PHYSIOLOGY 2 5. 30th May, 2010 -BIOCHEMISTRY 2 & PATHOLOGY 2 6. 6th June, 2010 - MICROBIOLOGY 1 & ANATOMIC SCIENCES4(COMPLETE) 7. 13th June, 2010 -DA 1 & DH 1 8. 20th June, 2010 -MICROBIOLOGY 2 & PHYSIO- BIOCHEM 9. 27th June, 2010 -DA 2 & DH 2 10. 4th July, 2010 -PATHO-MICRO & DADH 11. 11th July, 2010 -GRAND TEST 1 12. 18th July, 2010 - GRAND TEST 2 13. 25thJuly,2010 - Mock Test 3 14. 1st August, 2010 - Mock Test 4 15. 8th August, 2010 - Mock Test 5
JOIN NOW
For More Details Visit:
http://www.rxdentistry.org
If any link is broken or not working please report at
dr_madaan_10@yahoo.com
$6.00 Welcome Survey After Free Registration!
FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT
RxDENTISTRY
LOVEHUES
DENTAL MATRIX
201-210
201. Hinge axis is best detected by:
a. face bow transfer and freely adjustable condylar pieces.
b. face bow with three point articulator.
c. with face bow only.
d. with articulator only.
202. The size of wire used to reinforce porcelien bridges is:
a. 10 gauze.
b. 12 gauze
c. 14 gauze
d. 15 gauze
203.Prevalence of the disease affects:
a. sensitivity
b. specificity.
c. predictive value.
d. repeatability.
204.Hepatitis B occurs after incubation period of:
a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks.
c. 3 months.
d. 6 months.
205.Collar stud abscess is associated with:
a. M. tuberculosis.
b. M. leprae.
c. C. tetani.
d. none of the above.
206.Primary lesion in the lichen planus is:
a. macule.
b. papule.
c. vesicle.
d. bulla.
207.Steven-johnson syndrome involves:
a. type I hypersensitivity reaction.
b. type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C. type III hypersensitivity reaction.
d. type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
208.Which of the following have radiolucency closest to dentin?
a. ZOE
B. calcium hydroxide.
c. silicophosphate.
d. gutta-percha.
209.All of the following form radiolucent stones except?
a. xanthine.
b. cysteine.
c. allopurinol.
d. orotic acid.
210. forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction?
a. rowe's
b. bristows.
c. ashs.
d. walshams.
Leave answers in comments section
FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT
(191-200)191. Which condition is characterized by pain that is spontaneous and has periods of cessation (intermittent in nature)?
a. Reversible pulpitis b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
192. A patient complains of a constant pain , dull
in nature, in nature, in contrast to the sudden
sharp, shooting, intermittent pain of
neuralglias(chronic pain) and pain ranging from
mild to intolerable in the muscles of head &
neck,the most likely underlying cause is
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Facial palsy
c. MPDS
d. Cluster head ache
193.True statement/s about Sublingual space
infection is/are
a. Infection always crosses midline\
b. Infection from the posteroinferior part of the
space, can spread around the Submandibular gland
into Submandibular space
c. Infection can also spread via the lymphatics to the
sibmental or Submandibular Lymphnodes
d. ALL of the above
194. A patient presents with pain & tenderness,
nonhealing bony & overlying soft tissue wounds
with indurations of soft tissues, intra & extraoral
draining fistulae Thickened or wooden character
of bone the most likely diagnosis is
a. Chronic osteomyelitis
b. Acute suppurative osteomyelitis
c. Garre’s sclerosing osteomyelitis
d. ALL of the above
195. There is disruption or loss of continuity of
some axons, which undergo Wallerin
degeneration distal to the site of injury, this type
if nerve injury is called
a. Neuropraxia
b. Neurotemisis
c. Axonotmesis
d. None of the above
196. Malignant epithelial tissue tumors are known
as
a. Myxomas
b. Teratomas
c. Carcinomas
d. Sarcomas
197. An anesthetic agent capable of promoting
fatty degeneration in the liver is
a. Ether
b. Chloroform
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Cylopropanes
198. In the reflection of a mucoperiosteal flap
a. Acute angles are requirement
b. A vertical incision must be made
c. The incision should always be made around the
necks of the teeth
d. The base must be broader than the free margin
199. The advantage/s of marsupialization (Parch)
in the treatment of cysts is/are
a. Preservation of vital structures
b. Exposure of very little bone
c. Simplicity of the procedure
d. ALL of the above
200. A liver cirrhosis in a patient be of concern to
an oral surgeon because
a. Hemorrhage may occur following surgery
b. Delayed Detoxification of drugs
c. Healing is slower
d. ALL of the above
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
192. A patient complains of a constant pain , dull
in nature, in nature, in contrast to the sudden
sharp, shooting, intermittent pain of
neuralglias(chronic pain) and pain ranging from
mild to intolerable in the muscles of head &
neck,the most likely underlying cause is
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Facial palsy
c. MPDS
d. Cluster head ache
193.True statement/s about Sublingual space
infection is/are
a. Infection always crosses midline\
b. Infection from the posteroinferior part of the
space, can spread around the Submandibular gland
into Submandibular space
c. Infection can also spread via the lymphatics to the
sibmental or Submandibular Lymphnodes
d. ALL of the above
194. A patient presents with pain & tenderness,
nonhealing bony & overlying soft tissue wounds
with indurations of soft tissues, intra & extraoral
draining fistulae Thickened or wooden character
of bone the most likely diagnosis is
a. Chronic osteomyelitis
b. Acute suppurative osteomyelitis
c. Garre’s sclerosing osteomyelitis
d. ALL of the above
195. There is disruption or loss of continuity of
some axons, which undergo Wallerin
degeneration distal to the site of injury, this type
if nerve injury is called
a. Neuropraxia
b. Neurotemisis
c. Axonotmesis
d. None of the above
196. Malignant epithelial tissue tumors are known
as
a. Myxomas
b. Teratomas
c. Carcinomas
d. Sarcomas
197. An anesthetic agent capable of promoting
fatty degeneration in the liver is
a. Ether
b. Chloroform
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Cylopropanes
198. In the reflection of a mucoperiosteal flap
a. Acute angles are requirement
b. A vertical incision must be made
c. The incision should always be made around the
necks of the teeth
d. The base must be broader than the free margin
199. The advantage/s of marsupialization (Parch)
in the treatment of cysts is/are
a. Preservation of vital structures
b. Exposure of very little bone
c. Simplicity of the procedure
d. ALL of the above
200. A liver cirrhosis in a patient be of concern to
an oral surgeon because
a. Hemorrhage may occur following surgery
b. Delayed Detoxification of drugs
c. Healing is slower
d. ALL of the above
(181-190)181. Primordial prevention is the:
a. Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal
people
b. Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent
c. Promotion of health, well-being and efficiency
d. Prevention of disease through avoiding emergence of risk
factors
182. Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing
life style by education is referred as:
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Primordial prevention
183. Incubation period of amoebiasis is:
a. 1-2 weeks b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks d. 4-6 weeks
184. Immunization is which level of prevention?
a. Primary level of prevention
b. Secondary level of prevention
c. Tertiary level of prevention
d. Primordial level of prevention
185. The chronic diseases, which are seen in elderly,
are all EXCEPT:
a. Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels
b. Cancer of prostate
c. Accidents d. Acute diarrhea
186. Selective screening refers to screening tests
applied to a:
a. Volunteer group b. Randomly selected group
c. High risk group d. Non-randomized group
187. True about Sentinel surveillance:
a. It is a method of identifying the missing cases
b. Supplementing the notified cases is difficult
c. Total numbers of cases cannot be identified
d. It is performance and analysis of routine measurement
aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status
of population
188. Disease under WHO surveillance are all EXCEPT:
a. Diphtheria b. Relapsing fever
c. Polio d. Malaria
189. Isolation is not carried in one of the following:
a. Plague b. Cholera
c. AIDS d. Chicken pox
190. Gap in time between entry of the organism and
the appearance of signs and symptoms is:
a. Incubation period b. Latent period
c. Generation time d. Serial interval
191. The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy
Eradication Programme for the treatment of all
multibacillary leprosy would include
a. Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone
b. Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
c. Ethionamide, rifampicin aand dapsone
d. Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
192.Combination chemotherapy in Leprosy is used
because of:
a. Cost-effectiveness b. Decreased side effects
c. To prevent relapse d. To prevent resistance
193. No subclinical infection exists in
a. Polio b. Mumps c. Chicken pox d. Hepatitis A
194. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
a. Man is the only reservoir of infection
b. Flea is a vector of the disease
c. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic
presentation
d. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is
diagnostic modality
195. The Pillars of Revised National Tuberculosis
Control Programme (RNTCP) are all EXCEPT:
a. Achievement of not less than 85% cure rate amongst
infectious cases of tuberculosis through short course
chemotherapy involving peripheral health functionary.
b. Detecting 70% of estimated cases through Quality Sputum
Microscopy
c. Not involving NGO’s in RNTCP
d. Directly observed therapy (short term), is a community
based TB treatment and care strategy.
196. The commonest type of Polio:
a. Inapparent b. Abortive
c. Non-paralytic d. Paralytic
197. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination can
be classified as:
a. Sterilization b. Concurrent disinfection
c. Terminal disinfection d. Recurrent disinfection
198. The disinfectants, which are used for the
disinfection of faeces, are all EXCEPT:
a. Bleaching powder (500 gm/Lt) b. Cresol (50 ml/Lt)
c. Crude phenol (100 ml/Lt) d. Cetrimide (40 ml/Lt)
199. Paris green is a
a. Fumigant b. Contact poison
c. Stomach poison d. Repellent
200. Regarding prevalence of tuberculosis all are
correct EXCEPT:
a. Death occurs one in 500000 population
b. 40% of cases occur in children
c. 0.4% children are of 10 years age
d. Non-specific sensitivity is highly prevalent.
(161-170)161. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in Operative Dentistry?
A. They are generally made of stainless steel.
B. Nickel-Cobalt-Chromium is never used in its
fabrication
C. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel
D. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide
inserts
B. Nickel-Cobalt-Chromium is never used in its
fabrication
C. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel
D. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide
inserts
162. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer)
usually elicits a response at a higher current than
normal if a tooth, being tested has:
a. Open apex b.A pus-filled canal
c. Suffered a trauma d. Chronic pulpitis
163. According to the buccal object rule, when the xray
tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at
a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the
root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will
a.Move in the opposite direction that the cone is
directed
b.Move in the same direction that the cone is directed
c.Not move at all
d.none of the above
tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at
a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the
root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will
a.Move in the opposite direction that the cone is
directed
b.Move in the same direction that the cone is directed
c.Not move at all
d.none of the above
164. Which of the following canals in a maxillary
first molar is usually the most difficult to locate?
a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiobuccal
d. All of the canals are relatively easy to find
first molar is usually the most difficult to locate?
a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiobuccal
d. All of the canals are relatively easy to find
165. In which of the following conditions will the
involved teeth most likely not require endodontic
treatment if managed properly?
a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Radicular cyst
c. Chronic dental abscess
d. Chronic periapical granuloma
involved teeth most likely not require endodontic
treatment if managed properly?
a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Radicular cyst
c. Chronic dental abscess
d. Chronic periapical granuloma
166. Which of the following is not an indication to
use solvent-softened custom cones?
a. Tugback" within 1 mm of working length
b. Lack of an apical stop
c. An abnormally large apical portion of the canal
d. An irregular apical portion of the canal
use solvent-softened custom cones?
a. Tugback" within 1 mm of working length
b. Lack of an apical stop
c. An abnormally large apical portion of the canal
d. An irregular apical portion of the canal
167. The property of gold that is not affected by
cold working
a. Proportional limit b. Hardness
c. Ductility d. Modulus of elasticity
cold working
a. Proportional limit b. Hardness
c. Ductility d. Modulus of elasticity
168. Osteoporosis of the jaws is not related to
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoandrogenesis
c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Adenocarcinoma of stomach
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoandrogenesis
c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Adenocarcinoma of stomach
169. The speed of injection of a local anesthetic
a. Causes injection into a vascular channel
b. Modifies the actual final blood level obtained
from a local anesthetic
c. Reduces the actual peak blood level attained
d. Increase the vascularity of the local area
170. The incidence of asymptomatic carriage of
type B hepatitis is
a. 5% b. 10%
c. <1% d. 20%
(151-160)151. Gram-negative anaerobic cocci are all except
a. Veillonella b. Ruminococcus
c. Megasphaera d. None of the above
152. The mucous membrane which covers the alveolar process to the necks of the teeth
a. May be divided into the epimysin and fornix
b. May be divided into the alveolar mucosa and gingival
c. Is the tubercle of the oral mucosa
d. Is none of the above
153. The blood dyscrasia which has racial predilection is
a. Sickle cell anemia b. Thrombocytopenic purpura
c. Hemphilia d. cryoglobulinemia
154. Congenital micrognathia usually occurs in association with:
a. Pierre Robin syndrome
b. Trauma to temporomandibular joint
c. Parry-Romberg syndrome
d. Double lip
155. In the cap stage, which of the following cell types can be recognized in the enamel organ?
a. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stelalte reticulum
b. Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium
c. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stratum intermedium
d. Stellate reticulum and dental papilla
156. Acute osteomyelitis has which of the following characteristics?
a. Is produced by beta – hemolytic streptococcus and pneumococcus
b. Necrosis of marrow with cellular reaction occurs
c. Sequestrum, suppuration
d. All of the above
157. It is customary to refer to airway ventilation as
a. Alveolar spaces b. Inspired volume
c. Free space d. Dead space
158. Firm pressure with the tip of the finger along a line where the dental arch joins the body of the mandible will reveal a sensitive spout about 2.5 cm lateral to the midline. This is the site of emergence of
a. The oral vestibule
b. The mental nerve from the mental foramen
c. The fauces d. The chin
159. Which of the following is the principal action of ammonia in syncope
a. Respiratory stimulation
b. Vasomotor stimulation
c. Improvement in nerve conduction
d. Cardiac stimulation
160. Radiographs of a patient demonstrated dense radiopaque cotton-wool appearance of the mandible and pronounced hypercementosis. These findings are suggestive of
a. Osteitis deformans b. Torus mandibular is
b. Complex composite odontoma d. Osteopertrosis
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
MCQ'S SEARCH ENGINE
Custom Search