Rx Dentistry : A NEW BEGINNING

Rx Dentistry Proudly announces the start of a huge dental discussion forum.

Although Forum's are very common these days , but for those of you don't know..here is what a forum holds in stock for you.

An Internet forum, or message board, is an online  discussion site where people can hold conversations in the form of  posted messages.They differ from chat rooms in that messages  are not shown in real-time, to see new messages the forum page must be  reloaded. Also, depending on the access level of a user and/or the forum  set-up, a posted message might need to be approved by a moderator  before it becomes visible.
Forums have their own language; e.g. A single conversation is called a  'thread'. A forum is hierarchical or tree-like in structure: forum -  subforum - topic - thread - reply.

Depending on the forum set-up, users can be anonymous or have to  register with the forum and then subsequently log in, in  order to post messages.

The scarcity of specialised dental forums have led to introduction of this forum by Rx Dentistry.

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237.The blood brain barrier is present in all except

a.Postrema area
b.Subfornical organ
c.Neurohypophysis
d.Habernacular trigone

Ans-d.Habernacular trigone


Explanation:Refer ganong's physiology 22ed pg 615
Remember SONA OR SOAP Subfornical organ
Organum vasculosum
area postrema
posterior pituitary/neurohypophsis

236.Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal and hepatic failure

a.Doxacurium
b.Tubocurarine
c.Pancuronium
d.Atracurium

Ans-d.Atracurium


Isoflorane is also the anaesthetic of choice in renal and hepatic failure
Ref K.D.Tripathi 5th ed pg 314

235.Most common nerve used for monitoring anaesthesia

a.Ulnar nerve
b.Facial nerve
c.Radial nerve
d.Median nerve


Ans-a.Ulnar nerve

Explanation-Ref Ajay yadav Anaesthesia pg 46

234.All of the following muscles are composite muscles except

a.Pectineus
b.Rectus femoris
c.Adductor magnus
d.Biceps femoris

Ans-b.Rectus femoris

Explanation:BDC II /4th ed pg 64/Gray's 39 ed /1467,1469

233.Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following,except:

a.Superior petrosal sinus
b.Inferior petrosal sinus
c.Superfficial middle cerebral vein
d.Deep middle cerebral vein


Ans-a.Deep middle cerebral vein

Ref BDC III/4th ed /pg 94

232.In mass casuality,patients treated first are

a.Patients with life threatening injuries
b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource
c.Treating patients with multiple organ failure&that need equipment and mobility
d.All patients are treated equally


Ans-b.Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resources


Explanation:Trauma by Moore 4th ed pg 83

231.When a case is transferred to ICU ,mandibular fractures are evaluated in

a.Primary survey
b.Secondary survey
c.Primary survey with IMF
d.Away from resusciation room


Ans-a.Primary survey


Explanation.Ref Fonseca vol 3rd pg 1-2,Peter ward booth pg 31,34

230.A person working in a abattior presented with pustules on hand which turned into ulcer,which will best help in diagnosis?

a.Trichome methylene blue
b.Carbol fuschin
c.Acid fast stain
d.Calcoflour white

Ans-a.Trichome methylene blue


Explanation:Ref harrison 16th ed pg 1280

229.Drug of choice to treat hypertension during pregnancy

a.Diuretics
b.Enalapril
c.Reserpine
d.Methyldopa

Ans-d.Methyldopa

Explanation:Ref K.D Tripathi 5th ed pg 517

228.Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow?

a.Reynold's number less than 2000.
b.Decrease in the velocity of the blood.
c.Decrease in density of the blood.
d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.

Ans-d.Increase in the diameter of blood vessel.

Explanation-Ref ganong22/ed pg 583
reynold's no=density *diameter*velocity/viscosity

227.Name the drug having rapid onset despite high pka (9.1)

a.Procaine
b.Tetracaine
c.Chloroprocaine
d.Bupivacaine

Ans.c.Chloroprocaine

Explanation:Ref KDT 6TH ed pg 353

226.Drug not used in acute asthma is:

1.Salbutamol.
2.Ipratropium.
3.Montelukast.
4.Hydrocortisone.

Ans:3.Montelukast.

Explanation:KDT 5th ed pg 205

225.Which of the following is the action of styloglossus?

1.Acts to protrude the tongue and retract tip of tongue.
2.Acts to pull sides of tongue downward and aids retrusion.
3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
4.Flattens and broadens tongue.


Ans:3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.

224.Vertebral artery is the branch of:

1.Thyrocervical trunk.
2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
3.Second branch of the subclavian artery.
4.Inferior thyroid artery.

Ans:2.First branch of the subclavian artery.

Explanation:ref gray's anatomy pg928

223.Which material listed below has historically been the retrofilling material of choice?

a.Composite
b.Zinc-free amalgam
c.Gutta-percha
d. Methyl methacrylate

Ans.b.Zinc-free amalgam

Explanation:A retrofilling (also called a reverse filling or retrograde amalgam filling) is placed to seal the apical
portion of the root canal. This procedure is used when an apicoectom y alone will not yield a good
result. Whenever there is any chance whatsoever that an apical seal may be faulty, a reverse filling
material must be placed.

222.The nucleus involved in papez circuit is

a.Pulvinar
b.Intraluminar
c.VPL nucleus
d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.

Ans:d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.

Explanation:Ref Ganong's 22nd ed/256,258

221. Which of the following statement is correct regarding chemical setting of condensation silicone?

a)   Polymerization occurs with repeated elimination of small molecules

b)   Polymerization occurs with elimination of  single byproduct

c)   It occurs by repeated condensation of molecules of monomers

d)   Condensation does not occur at all   ( AIPG 2010  ) (Repeat: AIPG 2007)    \

220.Shoe leather survey was conducted in

a.Japan
b.USA
c.France
d.Germany

Ans:b.USA

219.The total pore volume of dark zone is

a.2-4%
b.20-40%
c.5-10%
d.0.1-1%


Ans:a.2-4%


Expalanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed /pg 95

218.The appearance of streptococcus mutans in pit and fissure caries is usually followed by caries

a.6 to 10 months later
b.2 to 6 months later
c.within 2 months
d.6 to 24 months later


Ans.d.6 to 24 months later


Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4 th ed/pg 83

217.Peak rates for the incidence of new carious lesions occurs how many years after eruption of the teeth

a.1 year
b.2 years
c.3 years
d.At the time of eruption

Ans:c.3 years


Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed/pg 92

216.The minimum depth of a detectable carious lesion on a radiograph is

a.500 micrometer
b.1000 micrometer
c.5000 micrometer
d.8000 micrometer

Ans:a.500 micrometer

Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed pg102

215.The greatest concentration of phosphate in tooth is in the

a.Pulp
b.Enamel
c.Dentin
d.Cementum

Ans:b.Enamel

214.Cross resistance of isoniazid is not seen with

a.Rifampicin
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol

Ans:b.Ethionamide


Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772

213.Filgastrim is used in treatment of

a.Anaemia
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial

Ans:b.Neutropenia

Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440

212. Most common primary malignant tumour of long bones is

a.Osteosarcoma
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma

Ans:a.Osteosarcoma

Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)

211. Low bone mass is seen in:

1. Paget’s disease.
2. Rickets.
3. Osteomalacia.
4. None of the above

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RxDENTISTRY
LOVEHUES
DENTAL MATRIX

201-210

201. Hinge axis is best detected by:

a. face bow transfer and freely adjustable condylar pieces.
b. face bow with three point articulator.
c. with face bow only.
d. with articulator only.


202. The size of wire used to reinforce porcelien bridges is:


a. 10 gauze.
b. 12 gauze
c. 14 gauze
d. 15 gauze


203.Prevalence of the disease affects:

a. sensitivity
b. specificity.
c. predictive value.
d. repeatability.


204.Hepatitis B occurs after incubation period of:


a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks.
c. 3 months.
d. 6 months.

205.Collar stud abscess is associated with:


a. M. tuberculosis.
b. M. leprae.
c. C. tetani.
d. none of the above.

206.Primary lesion in the lichen planus is:


a. macule.
b. papule.
c. vesicle.
d. bulla.


207.Steven-johnson syndrome involves:


a. type I hypersensitivity reaction.
b. type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C. type III hypersensitivity reaction.
d. type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
 
208.Which of the following have radiolucency closest to dentin?


a. ZOE
B. calcium hydroxide.
c. silicophosphate.
d. gutta-percha.


209.All of the following form radiolucent stones except?


a. xanthine.
b. cysteine.
c. allopurinol.
d. orotic acid.



210. forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction?


a. rowe's
b. bristows.
c. ashs.
d. walshams.



Leave answers in comments section

FOR MORE IN DENTISTRY: VISIT

RxDENTISTRY

LOVEHUES

DENTAL MATRIX

(191-200)191. Which condition is characterized by pain that is spontaneous and has periods of cessation (intermittent in nature)?

a. Reversible pulpitis b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

192. A patient complains of a constant pain , dull
in nature, in nature, in contrast to the sudden
sharp, shooting, intermittent pain of
neuralglias(chronic pain) and pain ranging from
mild to intolerable in the muscles of head &
neck,the most likely underlying cause is
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Facial palsy
c. MPDS
d. Cluster head ache


193.True statement/s about Sublingual space
infection is/are
a. Infection always crosses midline\
b. Infection from the posteroinferior part of the
space, can spread around the Submandibular gland
into Submandibular space
c. Infection can also spread via the lymphatics to the
sibmental or Submandibular Lymphnodes
d. ALL of the above


194. A patient presents with pain & tenderness,
nonhealing bony & overlying soft tissue wounds
with indurations of soft tissues, intra & extraoral
draining fistulae Thickened or wooden character
of bone the most likely diagnosis is
a. Chronic osteomyelitis
b. Acute suppurative osteomyelitis
c. Garre’s sclerosing osteomyelitis
d. ALL of the above


195. There is disruption or loss of continuity of
some axons, which undergo Wallerin
degeneration distal to the site of injury, this type
if nerve injury is called
a. Neuropraxia
b. Neurotemisis
c. Axonotmesis
d. None of the above


196. Malignant epithelial tissue tumors are known
as
a. Myxomas
b. Teratomas
c. Carcinomas
d. Sarcomas


197. An anesthetic agent capable of promoting
fatty degeneration in the liver is
a. Ether
b. Chloroform
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Cylopropanes


198. In the reflection of a mucoperiosteal flap
a. Acute angles are requirement
b. A vertical incision must be made
c. The incision should always be made around the
necks of the teeth
d. The base must be broader than the free margin


199. The advantage/s of marsupialization (Parch)
in the treatment of cysts is/are

a. Preservation of vital structures
b. Exposure of very little bone
c. Simplicity of the procedure
d. ALL of the above


200. A liver cirrhosis in a patient be of concern to
an oral surgeon because
a. Hemorrhage may occur following surgery
b. Delayed Detoxification of drugs
c. Healing is slower
d. ALL of the above

(181-190)181. Primordial prevention is the:

a. Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal
people
b. Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent
c. Promotion of health, well-being and efficiency
d. Prevention of disease through avoiding emergence of risk
factors

182. Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing
life style by education is referred as:
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Primordial prevention

183. Incubation period of amoebiasis is:
a. 1-2 weeks b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks d. 4-6 weeks

184. Immunization is which level of prevention?
a. Primary level of prevention
b. Secondary level of prevention
c. Tertiary level of prevention
d. Primordial level of prevention

185. The chronic diseases, which are seen in elderly,
are all EXCEPT:
a. Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels
b. Cancer of prostate
c. Accidents d. Acute diarrhea

186. Selective screening refers to screening tests
applied to a:
a. Volunteer group b. Randomly selected group
c. High risk group d. Non-randomized group

187. True about Sentinel surveillance:
a. It is a method of identifying the missing cases
b. Supplementing the notified cases is difficult
c. Total numbers of cases cannot be identified
d. It is performance and analysis of routine measurement
aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status
of population

188. Disease under WHO surveillance are all EXCEPT:
a. Diphtheria b. Relapsing fever
c. Polio d. Malaria

189. Isolation is not carried in one of the following:
a. Plague b. Cholera
c. AIDS d. Chicken pox

190. Gap in time between entry of the organism and
the appearance of signs and symptoms is:
a. Incubation period b. Latent period
c. Generation time d. Serial interval

191. The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy
Eradication Programme for the treatment of all
multibacillary leprosy would include
a. Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone
b. Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
c. Ethionamide, rifampicin aand dapsone
d. Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone

192.Combination chemotherapy in Leprosy is used
because of:
a. Cost-effectiveness b. Decreased side effects
c. To prevent relapse d. To prevent resistance

193. No subclinical infection exists in
a. Polio b. Mumps c. Chicken pox d. Hepatitis A

194. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
a. Man is the only reservoir of infection
b. Flea is a vector of the disease
c. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic
presentation
d. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is
diagnostic modality

195. The Pillars of Revised National Tuberculosis
Control Programme (RNTCP) are all EXCEPT:
a. Achievement of not less than 85% cure rate amongst
infectious cases of tuberculosis through short course
chemotherapy involving peripheral health functionary.
b. Detecting 70% of estimated cases through Quality Sputum
Microscopy
c. Not involving NGO’s in RNTCP
d. Directly observed therapy (short term), is a community
based TB treatment and care strategy.

196. The commonest type of Polio:
a. Inapparent b. Abortive
c. Non-paralytic d. Paralytic

197. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination can
be classified as:
a. Sterilization b. Concurrent disinfection
c. Terminal disinfection d. Recurrent disinfection

198. The disinfectants, which are used for the
disinfection of faeces, are all EXCEPT:
a. Bleaching powder (500 gm/Lt) b. Cresol (50 ml/Lt)
c. Crude phenol (100 ml/Lt) d. Cetrimide (40 ml/Lt)

199. Paris green is a
a. Fumigant b. Contact poison
c. Stomach poison d. Repellent

200. Regarding prevalence of tuberculosis all are
correct EXCEPT:
a. Death occurs one in 500000 population
b. 40% of cases occur in children
c. 0.4% children are of 10 years age
d. Non-specific sensitivity is highly prevalent.

(161-170)161. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in Operative Dentistry?

A. They are generally made of stainless steel.
B. Nickel-Cobalt-Chromium is never used in its
fabrication
C. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel
D. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide
inserts

162. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer)
usually elicits a response at a higher current than
normal if a tooth, being tested has:
a. Open apex b.A pus-filled canal
c. Suffered a trauma d. Chronic pulpitis
 

163. According to the buccal object rule, when the xray
tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at
a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the
root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will

a.Move in the opposite direction that the cone is
directed
b.Move in the same direction that the cone is directed
c.Not move at all
d.none of the above
 

164. Which of the following canals in a maxillary
first molar is usually the most difficult to locate?

a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiobuccal
d. All of the canals are relatively easy to find
 

165. In which of the following conditions will the
involved teeth most likely not require endodontic
treatment if managed properly?
a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Radicular cyst
c. Chronic dental abscess
d. Chronic periapical granuloma
 

166. Which of the following is not an indication to
use solvent-softened custom cones?
a. Tugback" within 1 mm of working length
b. Lack of an apical stop
c. An abnormally large apical portion of the canal
d. An irregular apical portion of the canal
 

167. The property of gold that is not affected by
cold working
a. Proportional limit b. Hardness
c. Ductility d. Modulus of elasticity
 

168. Osteoporosis of the jaws is not related to
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoandrogenesis
c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Adenocarcinoma of stomach

169. The speed of injection of a local anesthetic

a. Causes injection into a vascular channel
b. Modifies the actual final blood level obtained
from a local anesthetic
c. Reduces the actual peak blood level attained
d. Increase the vascularity of the local area

170. The incidence of asymptomatic carriage of
type B hepatitis is
a. 5% b. 10%
c. <1% d. 20%

(151-160)151. Gram-negative anaerobic cocci are all except

      a. Veillonella                  b. Ruminococcus

      c. Megasphaera             d. None of the above

152. The mucous membrane which covers the alveolar process to the necks of the teeth

a.     May be divided into the epimysin and fornix

b.     May be divided into the alveolar mucosa and gingival

c.     Is the tubercle of the oral mucosa

d.     Is none of the above

153. The blood dyscrasia which has racial predilection is

a.       Sickle cell anemia            b. Thrombocytopenic purpura

c.    Hemphilia                         d.  cryoglobulinemia

154. Congenital micrognathia usually occurs in association with:

a.     Pierre Robin syndrome

b.     Trauma to temporomandibular joint

c.     Parry-Romberg syndrome

d.     Double lip

155. In the cap stage, which of the following cell types can be recognized in the enamel organ?

a.     Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stelalte reticulum

b.     Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium

c.     Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stratum intermedium

d.     Stellate reticulum and dental papilla

156. Acute osteomyelitis has which of the following characteristics?

a.     Is produced by beta – hemolytic streptococcus and pneumococcus

b.     Necrosis of marrow with cellular reaction occurs

c.     Sequestrum, suppuration

d.     All of the above

157. It is customary to refer to airway ventilation as

       a. Alveolar spaces            b. Inspired volume

       c. Free space                   d. Dead space

158. Firm pressure with the tip of the finger along a line where the dental arch joins the body of the mandible will reveal a sensitive spout about 2.5 cm lateral to the midline. This is the site of emergence of

a.     The oral vestibule

b.     The mental nerve from the mental foramen

c.     The fauces                            d. The chin

159. Which of the following is the principal action of ammonia in syncope

a.     Respiratory stimulation

b.     Vasomotor stimulation

c.     Improvement in nerve conduction

d.     Cardiac stimulation

160. Radiographs of a patient demonstrated dense radiopaque cotton-wool appearance of the mandible and pronounced hypercementosis. These findings are suggestive of

a.     Osteitis deformans            b.   Torus mandibular is

b.     Complex composite odontoma   d.  Osteopertrosis