227.Name the drug having rapid onset despite high pka (9.1)

a.Procaine
b.Tetracaine
c.Chloroprocaine
d.Bupivacaine

Ans.c.Chloroprocaine

Explanation:Ref KDT 6TH ed pg 353

226.Drug not used in acute asthma is:

1.Salbutamol.
2.Ipratropium.
3.Montelukast.
4.Hydrocortisone.

Ans:3.Montelukast.

Explanation:KDT 5th ed pg 205

225.Which of the following is the action of styloglossus?

1.Acts to protrude the tongue and retract tip of tongue.
2.Acts to pull sides of tongue downward and aids retrusion.
3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.
4.Flattens and broadens tongue.

Ans:3.Acts to draw up the tongue to create a trough for
swallowing.

224.Vertebral artery is the branch of:

1.Thyrocervical trunk.
2.First branch of the subclavian artery.
3.Second branch of the subclavian artery.
4.Inferior thyroid artery.

Ans:2.First branch of the subclavian artery.

Explanation:ref gray's anatomy pg928

223.Which material listed below has historically been the retrofilling material of choice?

a.Composite
b.Zinc-free amalgam
c.Gutta-percha
d. Methyl methacrylate

Ans.b.Zinc-free amalgam

Explanation:A retrofilling (also called a reverse filling or retrograde amalgam filling) is placed to seal the apical
portion of the root canal. This procedure is used when an apicoectom y alone will not yield a good
result. Whenever there is any chance whatsoever that an apical seal may be faulty, a reverse filling
material must be placed.

222.The nucleus involved in papez circuit is

a.Pulvinar
b.Intraluminar
c.VPL nucleus
d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.

Ans:d.Anterior nucleus of thalamus.

Explanation:Ref Ganong's 22nd ed/256,258

221. Which of the following statement is correct regarding chemical setting of condensation silicone?

a) Polymerization occurs with repeated elimination of small molecules

b) Polymerization occurs with elimination of single byproduct

c) It occurs by repeated condensation of molecules of monomers

d) Condensation does not occur at all ( AIPG 2010 ) (Repeat: AIPG 2007) \

Answers >>>>>>>>

220.Shoe leather survey was conducted in

a.Japan
b.USA
c.France
d.Germany

Ans:b.USA

219.The total pore volume of dark zone is

a.2-4%
b.20-40%
c.5-10%
d.0.1-1%

Ans:a.2-4%

Expalanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed /pg 95

218.The appearance of streptococcus mutans in pit and fissure caries is usually followed by caries

a.6 to 10 months later
b.2 to 6 months later
c.within 2 months
d.6 to 24 months later

Ans.d.6 to 24 months later

Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4 th ed/pg 83

217.Peak rates for the incidence of new carious lesions occurs how many years after eruption of the teeth

a.1 year
b.2 years
c.3 years
d.At the time of eruption

Ans:c.3 years

Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed/pg 92

216.The minimum depth of a detectable carious lesion on a radiograph is

a.500 micrometer
b.1000 micrometer
c.5000 micrometer
d.8000 micrometer

Ans:a.500 micrometer

Explanation:Ref sturdevant 4th ed pg102

215.The greatest concentration of phosphate in tooth is in the

a.Pulp
b.Enamel
c.Dentin
d.Cementum

Ans:b.Enamel

214.Cross resistance of isoniazid is not seen with

a.Rifampicin
b.Ethionamide
c.Cyclosporine
d.Ethambutol

Ans:b.Ethionamide

Explanation:Ref katzung 10/ed pg 772

213.Filgastrim is used in treatment of

a.Anaemia
b.Neutropenia
c.Malaria
d.Filarial

Ans:b.Neutropenia

Explanation:Filgastrim is a recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor effective in the treatment of severe neutropenia.It mainly stimulates CFU-g to increase neutrophil production.(Ref Goodman &Gillman 11/ed pg 1440

212. Most common primary malignant tumour of long bones is

a.Osteosarcoma
b.Multiple myeloma
c.Ewings sarcoma
d.Metastatic carcinoma

Ans:a.Osteosarcoma

Explanation:osteosarcoma is the commonest primary malignant tumour of long bones and Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour. (Ref robbins 7th ed)

211. Low bone mass is seen in:

1. Paget’s disease.
2. Rickets.
3. Osteomalacia.
4. None of the above

Answers >>>>>>>>

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201-210

201. Hinge axis is best detected by:

a. face bow transfer and freely adjustable condylar pieces.
b. face bow with three point articulator.
c. with face bow only.
d. with articulator only.

202. The size of wire used to reinforce porcelien bridges is:

a. 10 gauze.
b. 12 gauze
c. 14 gauze
d. 15 gauze

203.Prevalence of the disease affects:

a. sensitivity
b. specificity.
c. predictive value.
d. repeatability.

204.Hepatitis B occurs after incubation period of:

a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks.
c. 3 months.
d. 6 months.

205.Collar stud abscess is associated with:

a. M. tuberculosis.
b. M. leprae.
c. C. tetani.
d. none of the above.

206.Primary lesion in the lichen planus is:

a. macule.
b. papule.
c. vesicle.
d. bulla.

207.Steven-johnson syndrome involves:

a. type I hypersensitivity reaction.
b. type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C. type III hypersensitivity reaction.
d. type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

208.Which of the following have radiolucency closest to dentin?

a. ZOE
B. calcium hydroxide.
c. silicophosphate.
d. gutta-percha.

209.All of the following form radiolucent stones except?

a. xanthine.
b. cysteine.
c. allopurinol.
d. orotic acid.

210. forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction?

a. rowe's
b. bristows.
c. ashs.
d. walshams.

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(191-200)191. Which condition is characterized by pain that is spontaneous and has periods of cessation (intermittent in nature)?

a. Reversible pulpitis b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

192. A patient complains of a constant pain , dull
in nature, in nature, in contrast to the sudden
sharp, shooting, intermittent pain of
neuralglias(chronic pain) and pain ranging from
mild to intolerable in the muscles of head &
neck,the most likely underlying cause is
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Facial palsy
c. MPDS
d. Cluster head ache

193.True statement/s about Sublingual space
infection is/are
a. Infection always crosses midline\
b. Infection from the posteroinferior part of the
space, can spread around the Submandibular gland
into Submandibular space
c. Infection can also spread via the lymphatics to the
sibmental or Submandibular Lymphnodes
d. ALL of the above

194. A patient presents with pain & tenderness,
nonhealing bony & overlying soft tissue wounds
with indurations of soft tissues, intra & extraoral
draining fistulae Thickened or wooden character
of bone the most likely diagnosis is
a. Chronic osteomyelitis
b. Acute suppurative osteomyelitis
c. Garre’s sclerosing osteomyelitis
d. ALL of the above

195. There is disruption or loss of continuity of
some axons, which undergo Wallerin
degeneration distal to the site of injury, this type
if nerve injury is called
a. Neuropraxia
b. Neurotemisis
c. Axonotmesis
d. None of the above

196. Malignant epithelial tissue tumors are known
as
a. Myxomas
b. Teratomas
c. Carcinomas
d. Sarcomas

197. An anesthetic agent capable of promoting
fatty degeneration in the liver is
a. Ether
b. Chloroform
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Cylopropanes

198. In the reflection of a mucoperiosteal flap
a. Acute angles are requirement
b. A vertical incision must be made
c. The incision should always be made around the
necks of the teeth
d. The base must be broader than the free margin

199. The advantage/s of marsupialization (Parch)
in the treatment of cysts is/are

a. Preservation of vital structures
b. Exposure of very little bone
c. Simplicity of the procedure
d. ALL of the above

200. A liver cirrhosis in a patient be of concern to
an oral surgeon because
a. Hemorrhage may occur following surgery
b. Delayed Detoxification of drugs
c. Healing is slower
d. ALL of the above

Answers >>>>>>>>

(181-190)181. Primordial prevention is the:

a. Prevention of diseases among the hill dwelling and tribal
people
b. Prolongation of human life span to the maximum extent
c. Promotion of health, well-being and efficiency
d. Prevention of disease through avoiding emergence of risk
factors

182. Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing
life style by education is referred as:
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Primordial prevention

183. Incubation period of amoebiasis is:
a. 1-2 weeks b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks d. 4-6 weeks

184. Immunization is which level of prevention?
a. Primary level of prevention
b. Secondary level of prevention
c. Tertiary level of prevention
d. Primordial level of prevention

185. The chronic diseases, which are seen in elderly,
are all EXCEPT:
a. Degenerative disease if heart and blood vessels
b. Cancer of prostate
c. Accidents d. Acute diarrhea

186. Selective screening refers to screening tests
applied to a:
a. Volunteer group b. Randomly selected group
c. High risk group d. Non-randomized group

187. True about Sentinel surveillance:
a. It is a method of identifying the missing cases
b. Supplementing the notified cases is difficult
c. Total numbers of cases cannot be identified
d. It is performance and analysis of routine measurement
aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status
of population

188. Disease under WHO surveillance are all EXCEPT:
a. Diphtheria b. Relapsing fever
c. Polio d. Malaria

189. Isolation is not carried in one of the following:
a. Plague b. Cholera
c. AIDS d. Chicken pox

190. Gap in time between entry of the organism and
the appearance of signs and symptoms is:
a. Incubation period b. Latent period
c. Generation time d. Serial interval

191. The multidrug regimen under the National Leprosy
Eradication Programme for the treatment of all
multibacillary leprosy would include
a. Clofazimine, thiacetazone and dapsone
b. Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
c. Ethionamide, rifampicin aand dapsone
d. Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone

192.Combination chemotherapy in Leprosy is used
because of:
a. Cost-effectiveness b. Decreased side effects
c. To prevent relapse d. To prevent resistance

193. No subclinical infection exists in
a. Polio b. Mumps c. Chicken pox d. Hepatitis A

194. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
a. Man is the only reservoir of infection
b. Flea is a vector of the disease
c. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic
presentation
d. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is
diagnostic modality

195. The Pillars of Revised National Tuberculosis
Control Programme (RNTCP) are all EXCEPT:
a. Achievement of not less than 85% cure rate amongst
infectious cases of tuberculosis through short course
chemotherapy involving peripheral health functionary.
b. Detecting 70% of estimated cases through Quality Sputum
Microscopy
c. Not involving NGO’s in RNTCP
d. Directly observed therapy (short term), is a community
based TB treatment and care strategy.

196. The commonest type of Polio:
a. Inapparent b. Abortive
c. Non-paralytic d. Paralytic

197. Disinfection of water by routine chlorination can
be classified as:
a. Sterilization b. Concurrent disinfection
c. Terminal disinfection d. Recurrent disinfection

198. The disinfectants, which are used for the
disinfection of faeces, are all EXCEPT:
a. Bleaching powder (500 gm/Lt) b. Cresol (50 ml/Lt)
c. Crude phenol (100 ml/Lt) d. Cetrimide (40 ml/Lt)

199. Paris green is a
a. Fumigant b. Contact poison
c. Stomach poison d. Repellent

200. Regarding prevalence of tuberculosis all are
correct EXCEPT:
a. Death occurs one in 500000 population
b. 40% of cases occur in children
c. 0.4% children are of 10 years age
d. Non-specific sensitivity is highly prevalent.

Answers >>>>>>>>

(161-170)161. Which of the following is not true about hand instruments used in Operative Dentistry?

A. They are generally made of stainless steel.
B. Nickel-Cobalt-Chromium is never used in its
fabrication
C. Carbon steel is more efficient than stainless steel
D. It can be made with stainless steel with carbide
inserts

162. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer)
usually elicits a response at a higher current than
normal if a tooth, being tested has:
a. Open apex b.A pus-filled canal
c. Suffered a trauma d. Chronic pulpitis

163. According to the buccal object rule, when the xray
tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at
a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the
root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will

a.Move in the opposite direction that the cone is
directed
b.Move in the same direction that the cone is directed
c.Not move at all
d.none of the above

164. Which of the following canals in a maxillary
first molar is usually the most difficult to locate?

a. Palatal b. Distobuccal
c. Mesiobuccal
d. All of the canals are relatively easy to find

165. In which of the following conditions will the
involved teeth most likely not require endodontic
treatment if managed properly?
a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Radicular cyst
c. Chronic dental abscess
d. Chronic periapical granuloma

166. Which of the following is not an indication to
use solvent-softened custom cones?
a. Tugback" within 1 mm of working length
b. Lack of an apical stop
c. An abnormally large apical portion of the canal
d. An irregular apical portion of the canal

167. The property of gold that is not affected by
cold working
a. Proportional limit b. Hardness
c. Ductility d. Modulus of elasticity

168. Osteoporosis of the jaws is not related to
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoandrogenesis
c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Adenocarcinoma of stomach

169. The speed of injection of a local anesthetic

a. Causes injection into a vascular channel
b. Modifies the actual final blood level obtained
from a local anesthetic
c. Reduces the actual peak blood level attained
d. Increase the vascularity of the local area

170. The incidence of asymptomatic carriage of
type B hepatitis is
a. 5% b. 10%
c. <1% d. 20%

Answers >>>>>>>>

(151-160)151. Gram-negative anaerobic cocci are all except

a. Veillonella b. Ruminococcus

c. Megasphaera d. None of the above

152. The mucous membrane which covers the alveolar process to the necks of the teeth

a. May be divided into the epimysin and fornix

b. May be divided into the alveolar mucosa and gingival

c. Is the tubercle of the oral mucosa

d. Is none of the above

153. The blood dyscrasia which has racial predilection is

a. Sickle cell anemia b. Thrombocytopenic purpura

c. Hemphilia d. cryoglobulinemia

154. Congenital micrognathia usually occurs in association with:

a. Pierre Robin syndrome

b. Trauma to temporomandibular joint

c. Parry-Romberg syndrome

d. Double lip

155. In the cap stage, which of the following cell types can be recognized in the enamel organ?

a. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stelalte reticulum

b. Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium

c. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel epithelium, and stratum intermedium

d. Stellate reticulum and dental papilla

156. Acute osteomyelitis has which of the following characteristics?

a. Is produced by beta – hemolytic streptococcus and pneumococcus

b. Necrosis of marrow with cellular reaction occurs

c. Sequestrum, suppuration

d. All of the above

157. It is customary to refer to airway ventilation as

a. Alveolar spaces b. Inspired volume

c. Free space d. Dead space

158. Firm pressure with the tip of the finger along a line where the dental arch joins the body of the mandible will reveal a sensitive spout about 2.5 cm lateral to the midline. This is the site of emergence of

a. The oral vestibule

b. The mental nerve from the mental foramen

c. The fauces d. The chin

159. Which of the following is the principal action of ammonia in syncope

a. Respiratory stimulation

b. Vasomotor stimulation

c. Improvement in nerve conduction

d. Cardiac stimulation

160. Radiographs of a patient demonstrated dense radiopaque cotton-wool appearance of the mandible and pronounced hypercementosis. These findings are suggestive of

a. Osteitis deformans b. Torus mandibular is

b. Complex composite odontoma d. Osteopertrosis

Answers >>>>>>>>

(141-150) 141. Gutta percha can be effectively sterilized by:

1. Hot salt sterilizer.

2. Autoclaving.

3. Chemical solutions.

4. Dry heat.

142. The most important aspect of the emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is:

1. Produce sedation.

2. Establish drainage.

3. Maintain obturations.

4. Adjust the occlusion.

143. A polyp may arise in connection with;

1. Chronic open pulpitis.

2. Pulp necrosis.

3. Acute pulpitis.

4. Chronic periapical region.

144. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?

1. Ether.

2. Chloroform.

3. Superoxol.

4. Sodium hypochlorite.

145. The primary function of access opening is to:

1. Facilitate access for irrigation.

2. Facilitate canal medication.

3. Aid in locating root canal orifice.

4. Provide straight-line access to the apex.

146. A cold test localizes:

1. Pain of pulpal origin.

2. Pulp necrosis.

3. Periodontal pain.

4. Referred pain.

147. Calcification of pulp:

1. It is in response to aging.

2. Does not related to periodontal conditions.

3. Precedes internal resorption.

4. Indicates the presence of an additional canal.

148. Electric pulp testing may not be performed on patients who have:

1. Hip implants.

2. Pace maker.

3. Dental implants.

4. Prosthetic eye.

149. For root canal therapy of maxillary canines (distal caries), the isolation done is:

1. 1^st premolar to the opposite lateral incisor.

2. 1^st molar to opposite lateral incisor.

3. Adjacent two teeth of both the sides.

4. Not required, only the tooth to be treated.

150. Avulsed tooth may be stored in saliva for upto:

1. 2 hours.

2. 3 hours.

3. 4 hours.

4. Indefinitely.

141 3 Grossman (11)-140

142 2 Grossman (11)-20,21

143 1 Grossman (11)-70

144 3 Grossman (11)-272

145 4 Grossman (11)-179

146 1 Grossman (11)-14

147 1 Grossman (11)-48

148 2

149 4 Studervant (4)-450

150 1 Grossman (11)-332

Ans. 141. C. Chemical solutions.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140)

• Gutta-percha cones may be kept sterile in screw capped vials containing alcohol.

• To sterilize a Gutta-percha cone freshly removed from the manufacturer’s box, one should immerse it in 5.2% Sodium Hypochlorite solution for One minute.

• The cone is then rinsed with Hydrogen peroxide and dried between two layers of sterile gauze.

• It has been demonstrated that Sodium Hypochlorite is more effective than Sporicidin and 7 times as effective as activated dialdehyde for sterilizing Gutta percha.

• Also remember that Silver cones are sterilized by slowly passing them back and forth through a Bunsen burner flame, 3 or 4 times or by immersing it in a hot salt sterilizer for 5 seconds- a temperature of 425 to 475 F. The special kind of plier used to insert or remove silver cones is called as Stieglitz pliers or forceps.

Ans. 142. B. Establish drainage.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 20, 21)

• “To relieve this (of acute alveolar abscess) constant pain, one should establish drainage through the root canal preferably, and through the soft tissue and bone, if necessary- Pg 20.

• “The value of test cavity in treating teeth with acute alveolar abscess is two fold. First, it tests for any remaining vital pulp that could require anesthesia and second, it initiates emergency therapy quickly, because the pulp chamber can be penetrated painlessly without delay, waiting for anesthesia to take effect.

• Leaving the tooth open for drainage, reduces the possibility of continued pain and swelling.

Ans. 143. A. Chronic open pulpitis

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 70)

“Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis or pulp polyp is a productive pulpal inflammation due to extensive carious exposure of a young pulp. It is characterized by the development of granulation tissue”

The causes of pulp polyp include:

1. Slow, progressive carious exposure of the pulp is the cause for development of hyperplastic pulpitis. A large open cavity, a young resistant pulp and chronic low grade stimulation are necessary.

2. Mechanical irritation from chewing and bacterial infection can often provide the desired stimulus.

Ans. 144. C. Superoxol.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 272)

• Superoxol is 30% solution of Hydrogen peroxide by weight and 100% by volume in pure distilled water.

• It is stored in a light proof, amber colored bottle, away from heat.

• In a refrigerated, sealed container it can be stored for approximately 3 to 4 months.

• It has an ischaemic effect on the skin and the mucous membrane that resembles a chemical burn.

• It is especially painful, if it comes in contact with the nail bed or the soft tissues under the finger nail.

• The amount needed for the bleaching operation is about 1 to 2 ml, dispensed in a clean dappendish.

• For bleaching endodontically treated teeth, the solution can be used alone or mixed with sodium perborate into a paste- a technique called as Walking Bleach.

• When placed into the pulp chamber the mixture oxidizes slowly and discolors the stain over a period of time.

Ans. 145. D. Provide straight line access to the apex.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 179)

Endodontic treatment can be divided into three main phases:

1. Biomechanical preparation of the root canal

2. Disinfection of the canal

3. Obturation of the prepared canal.

• The initial step for cleaning and shaping the root canal is proper access to the chamber that leads to a straight line penetration of the root canal orifices.

• The next step is exploration of the canal, extirpation of the remaining pulpal tissue or gross debridement of necrotic pulp tissue and the verification of the instrument length.

• This step is followed by proper instrumentation, copious irrigation and disinfection of the root canal.

• Obturation usually completes the procedure.

The principle aim of access opening is thus to obtain a straight line access to the apex.

Ans. 146. C. Pain of pulpal origin

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 14)

THERMAL TESTING

• A response to cold indicates a vital pulp regardless of whether the pulp is normal or abnormal.

• A heat test is not a test of pulpal vitality. An abnormal response to heat generally indicates the presence of a pulpal or a peri-apical pathology requiring endodontic treatment.

• When a reaction to the cold test occurs the patient can easily point out to the painful tooth.

• The heat response when described by the patient can be localized or diffuse and at times referred to different sites.

• The preferred temperature for heat testing is 65.5C and that for the cold test is 5C.

• The temperature of Dry ice or solid Carbon-di-oxide is around -78C. The major disadvantage of its use is that infarction lines may result.

Ans. 147. A. It is in response to aging.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 48)

The text states that “the origin of pulp calcification is controversial. The occurrence of this phenomenon in both old and young pulps prevents the exposition of a reasonable theory”.

Mineralization of Pulp

• Although their presence has been related to age and diseases, the calcifications also occur in young, healthy pulps.

• They are present as nodules called as denticles.

• Denticles predominate in the pulp chamber where as diffuse calcifications are predominantly found in the root canals.

• Denticles can be true or false.

• True denticles are usually found near the apex of the root canal.

• False denticles are found free in pulp tissue attached to the dentinal walls or embedded in the dentin.

• Calcifications in the root canals are usually not seen radiographically but may be detected during the exploration of the canal.

Ans. 148. B. Pace maker.

(Ref: Operative Dentistry-Vimal Sikri-1st Ed/ Pg 64)

• If the patient has a medical history of a Cardiac pacemaker, electric pulp testing is contraindicated as it may interfere with the electrical activity of the pacemaker.

• EPT uses electrical excitation to stimulate the A-delta nociceptor sensory fibres within the pulp.

• Teeth that temporarily or permanently lose their sensory function, as after trauma or Orthognathic surgery are generally non-responsive to EPT.

• False positive results may be obtained in necrotic pulps.

• False negative response may occur with pre-medications, alcohol, immature teeth, trauma, poor contact with tooth, inadequate media and partial necrosis.

• In initial few days after an injury, a temporary paresthesia of the nerves may occur and make them unresponsive to testing. If the pulp retains its vitality, it will respond within normal limits after 30 to 60 days.

Ans. 149. D. Not required, only the tooth to be treated.

(Ref: Sturdevant-4th Ed/ Pg 450)

“Isolation of a minimum of three teeth is recommended except when endodontic therapy is indicated, and in that case only the tooth to be treated is isolated”.

Remember

• When operating on the incisors and the mesial surfaces of the canine, isolate from 1st premolar to the 1st premolar.

• When operating on a canine, it is preferred to isolate from the first molar to the opposite lateral incisor.

• To treat class V lesions on the canine, isolate posteriorly to include the first molar to provide access for the cervical retainer placement on the canine.

• When operating on the posterior teeth, it is beneficial to isolate anteriorly to include the lateral incisors on the opposite side.

• When operating on the premolars punch holes to include two teeth distally and extend anteriorly to include the opposite lateral incisor.

• When a cervical retainer is to be applied to isolate a class V lesion, a heavier dam is usually recommended for better tissue retraction, and the hole for tooth should be punched slightly facial to the arch form to compensate for the extension of the dam in the cervical area.

• When a thinner rubber dam is used, smaller holes must be punched to achieve an adequate seal around the teeth because the thinner dam has greater elasticity.

Ans. 150. A. 2 hours.

(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 332)

“Blomtof has shown that milk preserves the vitality of periodontal ligament longer than saliva, 6 hours versus 2 hours respectively”

• Once the tooth has been avulsed, effort should be made to preserve the vitality of the PDL.

• The avulsed tooth should be immediately rinsed in water and replanted into the socket by the patient.

• The best storage medium for storage of the avulsed tooth, for maintaining the vitality of the PDL is the tooth socket.

• The second order of preference is to rinse the tooth in water and submerge it in a container of milk, with the patient instructed to report to the dentist immediately with the tooth.

• The next option is to place the tooth in the buccal vestibule.

• The least preferable method is to rinse the tooth and place it in a cup of water and have it replanted by the dentist immediately.

• Another preferable medium is HBSS- Hanks Balanced Salt Solution, which consists of NaCl, KCl and glucose.

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